M
Michael_M
Guest
A number of the eastern churches have entered back into communion with Rome, and there are thus many rites, or cultural and liturgical traditions within the one holy catholic and apostolic church. To me, central spiritual and moral authority makes sense a priori. I do not see how Matthew 16:13-19 can be interpreted any other way than Christ establishing the office of the papacy.
“‘Good for you, Simon son of John!’ answered Jesus. ‘For this truth did not come to you from any human being, but it was given to you directly by my Father in heaven. And so I tell you, Peter: you are a rock, and on this rock foundation I will build my church, and not even death will ever overcome it. I will give you the keys of the Kingdom of heaven; what you prohibit on earth will be prohibited in heaven, and what you permit on earth will be permitted in heaven.’”
In light of this passage, Protestant charges that the pope is the Anti-Christ, and the Orthodox rejection of the papacy befuddles me. It doesn’t seem to me that it could be any more clear that Christ indeed wished for his church to be governed by central authority.
Can someone explain to me the alternate interpretation of this passage, or how this passage is side-stepped in order to reject the papacy? I’m extremely curious. And a note to my Orthodox brothers and sisters: I am in no way implying your church is in the wrong; such is not for me to decide. I simply have a scholarly interest in comparative Christian theology and church history.
Thanks!
“‘Good for you, Simon son of John!’ answered Jesus. ‘For this truth did not come to you from any human being, but it was given to you directly by my Father in heaven. And so I tell you, Peter: you are a rock, and on this rock foundation I will build my church, and not even death will ever overcome it. I will give you the keys of the Kingdom of heaven; what you prohibit on earth will be prohibited in heaven, and what you permit on earth will be permitted in heaven.’”
In light of this passage, Protestant charges that the pope is the Anti-Christ, and the Orthodox rejection of the papacy befuddles me. It doesn’t seem to me that it could be any more clear that Christ indeed wished for his church to be governed by central authority.
Can someone explain to me the alternate interpretation of this passage, or how this passage is side-stepped in order to reject the papacy? I’m extremely curious. And a note to my Orthodox brothers and sisters: I am in no way implying your church is in the wrong; such is not for me to decide. I simply have a scholarly interest in comparative Christian theology and church history.
Thanks!