D
dmar198
Guest
This is a difficult question to answer because most of us do not have data about the populations of Catholic countries and Orthodox countries from almost a thousand years ago. To begin answering your question, I think we should find out who Does know that information, and ask them (or see if they’ve already given us an answer somewhere).Basic question: How pervasive was Eastern Orthodoxy compared to (Western) Catholicism immediately after the East/West schism?
Another way of asking: After the 1054 schism, was there ever a time when there were more Orthodox than Catholics?
Today, there are far more Catholics in the world than Orthodox, which may give the impression that Orthodoxy is a an offshoot of Catholicism (and not the other way around). Currently, around 1.2 billion Catholics and about 300 million Orthodox. Has the proportion always been similar? I know that a lot of the Catholic numbers come from the Americas, which come so much later than the initial split.
So could it have been there were actually more Orthodox than Catholics at one time, sometime in the 11th century or after?
Numbers don’t tell the whole story, but I do wonder: what was the extent of Catholicism (under papal authority) compared to Eastern Christianity that went into schism? What lands were thoroughly Catholic right after the split (11th century)? Obviously plenty of Western European lands. But did Orthodoxy also have a firm hold on many of the lands we consider Eastern Europe and the Near East at this time—beyond Constantinople? Some Orthodox give the impression that Rome was the odd man out, while everyone else remained orthodox.
Obviously, distinctly Catholic and Orthodox lands would go on to influence other peoples. So, for instance, I believe Russia was heavily influenced by Eastern Orthodoxy only after the split (but that may be wrong). But you get the idea.
On a related note, I think a good place to ask this question would be the American Museum of Natural History. They seem to know a lot about historical population centers because, late last year, they put out this video:
Human Population Through Time
youtube.com/watch?v=PUwmA3Q0_OE
That video tracks the human population through the use of yellow dots on a world map, with each yellow dot signifying a population center. In the 600s, when Islam arises, Western Europe has 16 population centers while the lands that would later be Orthodox have 21 population centers. In 800 A.D., the. (soon-to-be) Orthodox lands have 28 population centers, while Western Europe has 17 population centers. In 900 A.D., the (soon-to-be) Orthodox lands still have 28 population centers, while Western Europe has 18 population centers. In 1000 A.D., the (soon-to-be) Orthodox lands have 29 population centers, while Western Europe has 22 population centers. A bit over halfway through the 1000s A.D. ,the Orthodox lands still have 29 population centers, while Western Europe has 23 population centers.
This indicates that, at the time of the split, the Orthodox lands had a higher population because they had roughly six more population centers than there were in Western Europe. However, a lot of the population wasn’t even Christian, and that’s true in both Catholic and Orthodox territories. Demographics is equally as important to this question as population is. Are we overcounting the “Orthodox” population centers because four of them (in the mid-1000s) are in Saudi Arabia, three of them are in Egypt, and one of them is in Israel, all of which were (at this time) under the control of Muslims?
That’s eight population centers in question on the Orthodox side. Should we take all those population centers away from their “count” because they weren’t Orthodox territory? There was a high Orthodox population in them – just, how much? Should we take away half of each dot? I’m not sure because I don’t know the demographics. Similarly, in Western Europe, at least three and maybe four of our population centers at this time were in areas of Spain that were under Muslim control, not to mention that one of our population centers was in Sicily, which was under Muslim control. That’s four or five population centers in question. How much should we discount?
If we take away half of each population in territories that were under Muslim control, and do the same for both Catholic and Orthodox lands, we get Catholics: 21 or 20 population centers, Orthodox: 25 population centers. In other words, the Orthodox had about 4 or 5 more population centers than we did, discounting half the disputed territories.
Now, in this guesstimate, I’ve done some pretty sketchy comparisons based on a youtube video that was not meant for this purpose. And I’ve just guessed that half the population of some places were Christian when I really don’t know that. The point is, these estimates suggest the following: the populations of Catholic lands and Orthodox lands at the time of the Great Schism were comparable, but the Orthodox had a slightly population. This is a hypothesis for testing, not a conclusion for certain. I encourage you to contact the American Museum of Natural History for better and more complete information about demographics in historical areas.