T
The_Bucket
Guest
This has all been well-debated and the usual reply is that that porneia is not the typical word used for adultery. That word is moicheia. And anyway, that’s not what Christ would have said because he surely did not speak much, if any, Greek. He spoke in Aramaic and, when reading the Torah, Hebrew.This is the catholic answers response above which has been shown to be very murky based on the word porneia, I looked it up in the Greek dictionary
teknia.com/greek-dictionary/porneia
porneia
sexual immorality, fornication, marital unfaithfulness, prostitution, adultery, a generic term for sexual sin of any kind
So it seems not only adultery but all of these other things would be grounds for divorce as well, according the scripture.
This sort of issue, among many, is why we’re not Sola Scriptura folks.
And at any rate, if He had laid down the exception for adultery, He would not have stirred up a great reaction from the scribes as the detour from Mosaic law would not have been as dramatic.
groverproctor.us/sb/sb-adul.txt
While a Church scholar, the author there is NOT Catholic, and was in fact a Seventh-Day Adventist. Yet even he concludes:
This view is consistent with the absolute value that Mark, Luke, and Paul place on the saying of Jesus. We are bound to conclude that by the exception phrase about porneia, Jesus did not intend to open the way for divorce and remarriage in the case of sexual misconduct. Rather, He wished to reaffirm the creational principle of the permanence of the marriage union by allowing for divorce only in the case of an unlawful marriage. In the light of this conclusion, Matthew 19:9 would read: “whoever divorces his wife, unless his union with her is illegitimate, and marries another, commits adultery.”