How is the Pope able to dissolve an unconsmuated marriage?

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If I understand correctly, the Pope has the power to dissolve (not just retroactively annul) a marriage which has not been consummated. What’s the theological grounds behind this idea, and why does it apply specifically to the Pope but not to the other bishops?
 
If I understand correctly, the Pope has the power to dissolve (not just retroactively annul) a marriage which has not been consummated. What’s the theological grounds behind this idea, and why does it apply specifically to the Pope but not to the other bishops?
A valid marriage that is unconsummated can be dissolved because the couple has not become one flesh yet through the conjugal act. However, since matrimony is favored, it requires an examination. A dispensation is reserved to the Supreme Pontiff, but the bishops vote. The reasons are given in Pastor Bonus.CIC
Can. 1061 §1. A valid marriage between the baptized is called ratum tantum if it has not been consummated; it is called ratum et consummatum if the spouses have performed between themselves in a human fashion a conjugal act which is suitable in itself for the procreation of offspring, to which marriage is ordered by its nature and by which the spouses become one flesh.

Can. 85 A dispensation, or the relaxation of a merely ecclesiastical law in a particular case, can be granted by those who possess executive power within the limits of their competence, as well as by those who have the power to dispense explicitly or implicitly either by the law itself or by legitimate delegation.

Can. 87 §1. A diocesan bishop, whenever he judges that it contributes to their spiritual good, is able to dispense the faithful from universal and particular disciplinary laws issued for his territory or his subjects by the supreme authority of the Church. He is not able to dispense, however, from procedural or penal laws nor from those whose dispensation is specially reserved to the Apostolic See or some other authority.

**Pastor Bonus
**
Article 126
§ 1. The Roman Rota is a court of higher instance at the Apostolic See, usually at the appellate stage, with the purpose of safeguarding rights within the Church; it fosters unity of jurisprudence and, by virtue of its own decisions, provides assistance to lower tribunals.
§ 2. An Office has been set up at this Tribunal to examine the fact of non-consummation in a marriage and the existence of a just cause for granting a dispensation. It therefore receives all the acts, together with the votum of the Bishop and the remarks of the Defender of the Bond, weighs them according to its own special procedure and, if the case warrants it, submits a petition to the Supreme Pontiff requesting the dispensation.
§ 3. This Office is also competent to examine cases concerning the nullity of sacred ordination, in accordance with both universal and proper law, congrua congruis referendo”.

Article 4

The Office for processes of dispensation from ratified and non-consummated marriage and for cases concerning the nullity of sacred ordination is presided over by the Dean of the Roman Rota, assisted by Officials, Delegated Commissioners and Consultors.
 
Catholicism is an Incarnational religion. God became flesh, and by doing so, sanctified matter. The Incarnation was the “marriage” of God and man - the perfect union of the Creator with Creation. Christ continues to come to us through His Church, which is the mystical extension of the Incarnation - His body on earth. For this reason, the physical matters when it comes to the sacraments. The sacrament of matrimony is present, but not consummated, until the physical act of intercourse when the “two become one flesh”. That first act of intercourse is sacred in that it reflects the mystical union of Christ and His Church and completely bonds the couple together. The Church has always had the authority to dissolve non-consummated marriages. Why is it reserved to the Pope? I don’t think this is intrinsically true from a theological perspective, nor do I think this was always the case. I would have to do the research, but I am quite confident that in ancient times local bishops also had this authority. It is simply a matter of Church discipline, by the power of binding and loosing which Christ entrusted to her, that this power has been reserved to the Pope.

Take indulgences. At one point local bishops granted indulgences, but over time the Church decided to reserve this power to the Pope. These are questions of discipline, not doctrine.
 
Not true; this still happens today.
Local bishops do not grant indulgences as they did once upon a time. The Apostolic See grants indulgences, but in some cases allows the local Ordinary to stipulate a particular place (church, chapel, etc) or other particularities on how the indulgence may be obtained within his diocese.
 
Local bishops do not grant indulgences as they did once upon a time. The Apostolic See grants indulgences, but in some cases allows the local Ordinary to stipulate a particular place (church, chapel, etc) or other particularities on how the indulgence may be obtained within his diocese.
Yes, that’s what I meant.
 
If I understand correctly, the Pope has the power to dissolve (not just retroactively annul) a marriage which has not been consummated. What’s the theological grounds behind this idea, and why does it apply specifically to the Pope but not to the other bishops?
Hello,

The 1941 Allocution of Pius XII to the Roman Rota went into some detail on the notion of the Pope’s ability to dissolve non-Sacramental and unconsummated marriages. I don’t know if an English translation of that address is available online.

Basically, this is an exercise of the Pope’s ministerial power as vicar of Christ, carried out for the purpose of the salvation of souls. While it is consent that makes a marriage contract, consummation “completes it” in that it is the act by which the “goods” of the contract are exchanged. If I agree to buy a car for $1000, but then do not exchange the money for the car, it’s possible to rescind the contract. It’s a bit different in ecclesiastical law, since the unconsummated marriage can be dissolved even if one party is against it. But, the rationale is similar.

Dan
 
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