P
Philthy
Guest
I will apologize in advance for being blunt. My question is regarding how much intimate physical touching is “acceptable” between husband and wife if the touch is not an immediate prelude to sexual intercourse. I know it is sinful for a man to intentionally reach orgasm outside of sexual intercourse. My question is directed at whether it is sinful for a husband to sexually stimulate his wife to the point of orgasm if they are not intending it as an immediate prelude to sexual intercourse(ie as foreplay).