J
JPerry1980
Guest
I’ve always had a difficult time in attempting to understand the passage from Matthew 27:24-25 of “His blood be upon us and upon our children.” (NAB).
What is the official teaching of Rome regarding this passage? Is this to state that the responsibility of Christ’s crucifixion to be on the hands of Judaism for all time? I have a hard time in accepting this. As a Catholic, I believe that the sins of an individual person cannot be laid upon their children because a child has free-will to decide on their own actions (in omission and comission). Thus, I believe those who blame Judaism to this day for the crucifixion of Christ are ignoring a fundamental virtue of Catholicism in believing that the sins of a parent can be transferred to the children of said parent. Yes, we are to some degree the product of the environment in which we are raised. Yet, at the same time, we are the actions that we take in our lives, not the result of our birth (save for original sin). We are the actions that we personally take, or fail to take, in our lives.
I think this passage has been used to great extents for the continuation and propagation of great anti-Semitic development throughout the last 2,000 years. At the same time, I think we must also consider the age in which this passage was written (historical relevance). Is this passage an indictment of Judaism as a whole in the failure to prescribe to the teachings and acceptance of Christ as Messiah? Or, is this passage an example of the fact that all people who do not accept the teachings of Christ are thus deemed to be responsibile for his crucifixion for the very nature of their unbelief?
Anyway, I do not intend to start any arguments, I’m honestly just curious as to how this passage should be properly read in the framework of the teachings of the Church. Ultimately, I do not believe any blame should fall upon any individual or group of people for the necessity of Christ’s crucifixion. We are all to blame for the necessity of His glorious sacrifice. He came for us, that we as all people may live through knowing Him and His Sacred Sacrements within the fullness of our faith and His Church. No man or group of individuals took the life from Christ, rather He gave His life so that we may attain His salvation. Yet, the passage is still inscribed as “His blood be upon US…”.
So, I ask, how should this passage be properly understood?
pax,
j.p.
What is the official teaching of Rome regarding this passage? Is this to state that the responsibility of Christ’s crucifixion to be on the hands of Judaism for all time? I have a hard time in accepting this. As a Catholic, I believe that the sins of an individual person cannot be laid upon their children because a child has free-will to decide on their own actions (in omission and comission). Thus, I believe those who blame Judaism to this day for the crucifixion of Christ are ignoring a fundamental virtue of Catholicism in believing that the sins of a parent can be transferred to the children of said parent. Yes, we are to some degree the product of the environment in which we are raised. Yet, at the same time, we are the actions that we take in our lives, not the result of our birth (save for original sin). We are the actions that we personally take, or fail to take, in our lives.
I think this passage has been used to great extents for the continuation and propagation of great anti-Semitic development throughout the last 2,000 years. At the same time, I think we must also consider the age in which this passage was written (historical relevance). Is this passage an indictment of Judaism as a whole in the failure to prescribe to the teachings and acceptance of Christ as Messiah? Or, is this passage an example of the fact that all people who do not accept the teachings of Christ are thus deemed to be responsibile for his crucifixion for the very nature of their unbelief?
Anyway, I do not intend to start any arguments, I’m honestly just curious as to how this passage should be properly read in the framework of the teachings of the Church. Ultimately, I do not believe any blame should fall upon any individual or group of people for the necessity of Christ’s crucifixion. We are all to blame for the necessity of His glorious sacrifice. He came for us, that we as all people may live through knowing Him and His Sacred Sacrements within the fullness of our faith and His Church. No man or group of individuals took the life from Christ, rather He gave His life so that we may attain His salvation. Yet, the passage is still inscribed as “His blood be upon US…”.
So, I ask, how should this passage be properly understood?
pax,
j.p.