How sufficient does the CC deem the Scriptures?

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I know I’m not in error by praying *only *to God the Father. I have to trust in the claims of the Catholic Church to believe it is okay to pray to anyone else. If you read my other thread you will see why I’m not sure I should (trust those claims):

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=142925

Peace
No, you are just at a loss.😃 If your tagline is true, then you will be willing to explore the early church fathers, and the sources of the Divine Liturgy. When you do this, you will see that the Church has always communed with the saints, those who have passed over, and those that have not. Why rob yourself of your birthright?
 
Well the first Christians did not go by Bible Alone. For one, the Apostle preached the Gospel orally. For the early years of the Christianity there was no written account of the Gospel until 20-30 yrs after the fact. The only Scripture they had was Old Testament.
The early church first had Jesus, then the Apostle’s, then the Apostle’s writings, canonized or not. It has always had God’s Word.
Second, the Council of Jerusalem did not appeal to Scripture from the OT if it did, we would still be required to have circumcism today.
Right, it was possible for that council to make such a decision b/c the H.S. was infallibly working through the Apostles. I don’t see evidence that this infallibility was guaranteed to continue via future, infallible magisterial councils vs. the infallible and inspired Bible. In fact, we have the opposite. We have Jesus warning us that error will arise right from among us and lead many astray. He also warns about the deceptiveness of the Devil and how he will appear as an angel of light. And finally we have numerous warnings about the importance of closely adhering to God’s Word
 
Having read through most of the thread the one component which seems to have eluded the discussion with concern for ones ability to interpret the bible is the guidance of the Holy Spirit.

While the Holy Spirit guides each of us individually, we can also impose our thoughts feeling and preconceptions onto scripture.
We can do the same with our evaluation of the church too.
God set up the church so we would know what is authentic through the Holy Spirit.
So I have to believe that the H.S. doesn’t guide us to understand His Word, but the H.S. does guide the church. And why should I believe this? Just b/c there are differences in interpretation? People pick and choose what to believe whether it’s the bible or the church as an authority
How? By having us check the spirit
How do I check the spirit of the Catholic church then?
A spirit unwilling to be checked is a spirit that isn’t present in the Holy Spirit.
I agree! If Scripture isn’t the way of testing the spirit of the Catholic church, then IT is a spirit unwilling to be checked!
Why? Think of it as Gods system of checks and balances. Why is this important, because it is not only in the bible, but it is tradition.
so, you are saying that tradition is the measure to test the spirit of the church? How then do we test the traditions???
we believe we are not the first people to have been led by the Holy Spirit
And the 30,000+other denominations believe the same thing. The answer is in closely adhering to God’s Word. That is the test.
that in fact there are 2000 years of people in the church who have been led by the spirit, submitting themselves with the understanding and trust that God would not leave us orphans or to our own devices as he promised to lead the church by the Holy Spirit forever.
And there were many years also where God’s people went astray and yet God still kept his promise without us claiming the gates of hell prevailed.
Next taking Timothy into context. For Timothy and Paul scripture they are talking about which he has known from childhood is the OT.
I realize that, but since the NT is Scripture today it applies to the NT as well.

Peace
 
The early church first had Jesus, then the Apostle’s, then the Apostle’s writings, canonized or not. It has always had God’s Word.Right, it was possible for that council to make such a decision b/c the H.S. was infallibly working through the Apostles.
Well, at least we agree on something!
I don’t see evidence that this infallibility was guaranteed to continue via future, infallible magisterial councils vs. the infallible and inspired Bible.
Where are you looking for the evidence?

Matt 28:18-20
18 And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. 19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, to the close of the age.”

Do you think that the “age” has closed? Was the teaching to observe ended with the death of the last apostle? Why did Jesus promise to be with us to the close of the age unless there was going to be successors to the Apostles? You are wrong in setting magesterium “vs” the Bible. The magesterium does not teach anything that is contrary to scripture. It is magesterium AND Bible.
In fact, we have the opposite. We have Jesus warning us that error will arise right from among us and lead many astray. He also warns about the deceptiveness of the Devil and how he will appear as an angel of light. And finally we have numerous warnings about the importance of closely adhering to God’s Word

The fact that we have error within is not “opposite” of the holy teachings. It confirms that they are truth. Everything Jesus taught either has already, or will come to pass. Adherance to the Word means Jesus. He is the Word. John 1:1-5
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God; 3 all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made. 4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it. "

Jesus speaks to us in written(scripture) and oral(magesterium) Word. He also inspires devotional writings from His faithful. Although these writings are not on par with the scripture, they are still profitable for devotion. If you continue to study the Teachings and the Early Fathers, this will confirm itself to you.
 
Oh almost forgot.

JoytbeCatholic, If you want to find out why Paul wrote what he did concerning head coverings, you are going to have to go outside the bible. You’ll find it in some non biblical apocryphal literature
Exactly where. I’ll look it up.
It is also one of the reasons the church decided to allow what she did
Can you show me that this is why the church decided it?
It has to do with this verse:

1 Cor 11:10: That is why a woman ought to have a veil on her head, because of the angels.

Bottom line: it dealt with superstition.
So, Paul praises them for imitating him and for keeping his ordinances, and then goes on at length about a superstition??? God inspired Him to go on and on about a needless superstition?!
Think of it as going topless (pun intended) for an angel.
I do partially think of it that way, and I don’t see it as a superstition to be modest. If a woman’s hair is her glory, and it should dishonor her head (husband) not to cover it, then it is like any other of your “assets” being exposed. (I say ‘should’ dishonor her head, b/c Paul says: “doth not nature itself teach you that if a man has long hair, it is a shame unto him? But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering.”. Of course, today, anything goes if you let culture dictate things…). Ever notice that the majority of models, sexy actresses and worse have long hair? I know short hair can be seen as sexy, but generally, throughout history, long hair has been viewed somewhat as something reserved for the husband’s eyes only. In any case, this Scripture is deeper than just modesty. It’s about submission. But I don’t want to get too o.t.

Peace and God Bless
Nicene
 
Matt 28:18-20
18 And Jesus came and said to them, "All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. 19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you;
…speaking directly to the Apostles
and lo, I am with you always, to the close of the age."
He does not specify how He will be with us always. Perhaps it is in partially through the church (not just one denomination), partially through the believer in whom the Holy Spirit lives, and partially through the Bible. God promised He wouldl preserve His Word and that is the place we know is never without error.
Do you think that the “age” has closed?
You would have to define “age”, but more or less, I will probably answer yes it did.
Was the teaching to observe ended with the death of the last apostle?
Yes, that is what I am suggesting at least.
Why did Jesus promise to be with us to the close of the age unless there was going to be successors to the Apostles?
Jesus is with us in His Spirit. God abides in those who believe in Him, and fruit of that faith is very visible (the church).
 
JoyToBeCatholic,

I’m back, and my fingers are poised to type once again…
The NT Christians were going by bible only in the sense that they had the authors at their disposal.
So, in the sense that they didn’t adhere to “Bible only” they were “Bible only”?? :ouch:

Of course, the Sacred author is called the Paraclete. Good author. Jesus said he would be with us to the end. Which means we still have the author at our disposal. 😉

But that does not mean that every Scripture reader is given the same charism of the Holy Spirit.

1 Cor 12:4-11 “Now there are varieties of gifts…and there are varieties of service…and there are varieties of working…To each is given the manifestation of the Spirit for the common good…All these are inspired by one and the same Spirit, who apportions to each one individually as he wills.

St. Paul, for example, wrote a letter to Church at Corinth, did that mean that what he taught orally was no longer authoritative, since he didn’t put it in his letter? Of course not. There aren’t enough books in the world to fully contain the Word of God–the teachings of Jesus Christ…

John 21:25 - “there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.”

This is why Christ ordained men to teach in his name, promising them the assistance of the Holy Spirit in their mission.

Acts 20:28 - HS appointed you overseers, to tend church
Jn 20:22 - As Father sent me, I send you…receive HS

Those apostlic men ordained other men to do the same, charging them to ordain others to continue their ministry…

Acts 14:22 - they appointed presbyters in each church
2 Tim 1:6 - gift of God you have thru imposition of hands
Tit 1:5 - appoint presbyters in every town, as I directed you

And the deposit of faith is not merely what was written, but what was orally taught, and that oral teaching was also commanded to be passed on and taught to others…

2 Tim 2:2 - what you heard entrust to faithful men

To use one’s personal interpretation of Scritpure as the sole rule of faith apart from the authority of this oral apostolic tradition leads necessarily toward treating prophesy as though it should be only privately interpreted, yet…

2 Pet 1:20 - No prophesy is a matter of private interpretation

So why do we need the public interpretation of authoritatively ordained teachers? Because not everyone has the same gifts and the Bible is NOT perspicuous, but many parts are difficult to understand…

2 Pet 3:15-16 Paul’s letters can be difficult to grasp & interpet

Furthermore, faith comes not by one’s private interpretation of written texts as though it alone were an infallible norm for determining truth, but instead, faith comes from what is heard…

Rom 10:17 faith comes frm what is heard
1 Pet 1:25 God’s eternal word = word preached to you
1 Cor 15:1-2 being saved if you hold fast to the word I preached

Doctrines which are contrary to the deposit of faith traditioned from the apostles are to be shunned, according to St. Paul, right? What norm do we have for determining authentic Christian doctrine from error? How do we know that “Bible alone” epistemology is contrary to apostolic tradition? Scripture gives us the norm for discerning true Christian doctrine. That norm, the Church, is called the “pillar and foundation of truth” (1 Tim 3:15).

Scritpure tells us who the final arbiter is when Christians sin against their brethen, and heresy is one such sin. In Matt 18:17-18, we are commanded to “listen to the Church” and they who “refuse to listen even to the Church,” are to finally let their own personal conviction rule them, there own “personal interetation of Scritpure alone” decide? NO!. Scripture instead teaches that If they refuse to listen to the Church, they are to be treated as one outside the communion of the faithful. St. Paul affirms this very teaching when he stated, Tit 3:10 “*As for a man who is factious, [Gk *hairetikos] after admonishing him once or twice, have nothing more to do with him.” This is inherent in the Scriptural exhoration of Hebrews 13:17Obey your leaders and submit to them; for they are keeping watch over your souls, as men who will have to give account. Let them do this joyfully, and not sadly, for that would be of no advantage to you.

To be a protestor against the Church is rather like the sin of Korah’s rebellion (cf. Num 16) which St. Jude warned against (Jude 11). Yet, this is precisely what the Protestant rebellion consisted of.

Jude 10-11 “…these men revile whatever they do not understand…Woe to them! For they…perish in Korah’s rebellion.
 
…speaking directly to the Apostles He does not specify how He will be with us always. Perhaps it is in partially through the church (not just one denomination), partially through the believer in whom the Holy Spirit lives, and partially through the Bible. God promised He wouldl preserve His Word and that is the place we know is never without error.
Yes, but Word is both oral and written. He commissioned them to go and teach obedience. This is where apostolic succession begins. Then, as Paul writes to the young bishop Timothy:

2 Tim 2:1-2
2:1 You then, my son, be strong in the grace that is in Christ Jesus, 2 and what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also."

These teachings were “heard” and “entrusted” and “taught”. Before and since the scriptures were canonized. They were handed down to faithful men who were able to teach.

This is a person to person process:
" 9 What you have learned and received and heard and seen in me, do; and the God of peace will be with you." Phil 4:8-9

It was the bishops that held the church in truth:

–1 Tim 3:1 says that a bishop must be an apt teacher and that he must be able to take care of God’s church. Titus 1:7-9 says that a bishop is God’s steward and that he is a teacher and must be able to preach with sound doctrine and to refute those who contradict it. Acts 20:27 indicates that bishops watch over the flock of which the Holy Spirit has made them overseers. Likewise Hebrews 13:17 says "Obey your leaders and submit to them, for they are keeping watch over your souls and will give an account.
…You would have to define “age”, but more or less, I will probably answer yes it did. Yes, that is what I am suggesting at least. Jesus is with us in His Spirit. God abides in those who believe in Him, and fruit of that faith is very visible (the church).
Ok, so if the "age " ended with the death of the last Apostle, then there is no more need for Jesus to be with us? We don’t need bishops anymore? Yes, God abides in those who believe in Him, and the fruit of that faith is visible in the church. And He has entrusted the tenents of the faith to the shepherds, and promised to keep them in all truth, until His return.
 
… I don’t see evidence that this infallibility was guaranteed to continue via future, infallible magisterial councils vs. the infallible and inspired Bible.
Perhaps you can consider something more carefully for me. What good does it do to have an an inerrant book on your shelf if we don’t have–either individually or collectively–the capability to interpret it without the admixture of error? It might as well NOT be inerrant, right? The effect of inerrancy is gone if there is no way to interpret without admixture of error what that inerrant truth is, right?

The entire thesis of a “fallible collection of infallible books” claimed by Protestants is absurd. It is also absurd to point to a book, claiming to non-believers that it is inerrant, yet in the same breath telling the non-believers that we don’t possess the gifts to either collectively or individually interpret that really cool book without the admixture of error. Wish we did. Darn it, but we don’t. Follow me, trust me anyways, as I think I know where I’m going. :rolleyes:

Dang, wouldn’t that have been a wonderful gift from God? The ability to interpret the inerrant book without admixture of error? Without the existence of the gift of infallibility, Protestants are claiming that although we are pretty sure we have the “meaning of life,” hidden somewhere in that there book, we aren’t absolutely sure what that there book is teaching us. Although we think the truth is in this here really cool book, nobody can have the ability to actually know it. That’s absurd when you think about it, isn’t it? So, although Jesus is the way, the truth, and the life, we can only have various error-filled opinions as to what Christianity teaches, and nobody could ever really be absolutely sure. Not a very compelling “way” is it? Breaks down into doctrinal relativism, right? That guy in Missouri from the Unity School of Christianity, the one who claims to be the reincarnation of St. Paul, his “opinion” is just as sure as anybody else’s opinion, right? Don’t you see that this false epistemology allows anybody to re-define Christianity to mean anything they wish?

Protestants seem to admit to the gift of infallibility for the first Christians, but for some strange reason claim this gift did not continue. Yet, they have no Scritpural basis for claiming this gift had a “shelf-life” which expired with the first generation of Christians. Rather ironic claim, for those professing to go by the “Bible alone.”
 
… After the early church had the apostles, it had their writings.
I agree. They also had the memory of their oral apostolic teachings, their memory of their liturgical practice, and their personal oral “Bible commentaries” of their very own writings. St. Ignatius of Antioch (AD 50-110), for example, learned Christianity from St. John the Apostle himself. He probably had an original autographed copy of St. John’s Gospel, his letters, and his Book of Revelation. Unlike you and I, koine Greek was not some ancient language which only the very learned could decipher, but instead was the vernacular language of the day, much easier to understand. In fact, St. Ignatius wrote his personal letters in the same koine Greek. His knowledge of Biblical languages must have been superior to Strong’s, I think.

Likewise, since he lived in the first century, his understanding of the historical “context” much better than you or I, since he actually LIVED in that context.

Yet, I gather that if Ignatius didn’t understand something that was written, unlike you or I he could simply turn to John and say, “Hey, John, what did you mean here?” Those early Bible commentaries must have been quite helpful, no? Wish I had a copy. I suppose Ignatius’ letters which are still extant might be a valuable aid to understanding what John really meant. 😉
Now, you say it didn’t have a bible yet, but it did!
Hmmmm…actually I haven’t said that. Some communities had some writings, other communities had other writings. However, the material deposit of faith was not necessarily collected into one handy volume. Yet, it was indeed “once and for all” delivered" or “traditioned” accord to St. Jude’s testimony, so the deposit of faith was complete in the first century, in both oral and written form, with handy extra-Biblical sermons and commentaries from those who knew the Apostles personally. 👍
So what, exactly, was the early church teaching??? It had to be teaching error, no? Mixed, perhaps, with a little truth, no?
Correct. Surely you know that the gift of infallibility isn’t given individually to everyone, nor is it given to anyone such that they exercise that gift ALL THE TIME. Thus, there is always going to be an admixture of error within the speculative theology and various individual opinions within the Church. One should distinguish that which is called in Scripture dogmata from that which is merely speculative.
Let me ask you this:
Since advocates for the CC point to the fact that the CC went through a great process to determine which writings were canonizable… Before an infallible pronouncement was made about which writings were canonizable, we have to assume that the early church was circulating and reading writings that may not have been canonizable, correct?
I’d say that some individuals and local or “particular” Churches (not the universal Church) claimed that some non-biblical texts were “inspired.” For example, Origen, Patriarch of Alexandria claimed the “Sherpherd of Hermas” was “inspired.” Also, two heads of the Catechetical School of Alexandria included the Didache as among the sacred texts. Yet, the universal Church never made such a claim.
 
continued…
Does this mean that the gates of hell prevailed against the church?
I don’t think “error” and “gates of hell prevailing” are the same thing. Heresy is the “obstinate” denial of the dogmata of Christ, not merely error made “in good faith.”

Furthermore, just because some Churchmen error does not mean the Church universal has erred in her dogmata about faith and morals.

Do you know what the doctrine of infallibility is? It seems you think that it means absolutely no error by anyone calling themselves Catholic. It’s not.
Let me ask this:
*If, *before an infallible pronouncement was made about which writings were canonizable, we assume that it was always common knowledge which writings were worthy of canonization …
Like you, I dont’ agree with that assumption. We know from historical evidence that many in the East did not accept Revelation. It was not “common knowledge” to many local regions or particular Churches of Christianity as to what the true Bible consisted of. However, it seems that by all historical accounts, the earliest testimony shows that EVERY Church of Christ did consider the larger version of the Book of Daniel as Scripture. Every one of them. Which begs the question, why don’t Protestants accept this longer version of Daniel? Makes ya wonder, don’t it? See more here: How Big is Your Book of Daniel?

When Marcion, in the 2nd cent. began to use St. Matthew’s Gospel (or his own version of it) to promote Gnostic beliefs, many regions began to wonder about the orthodoxy of Matthew’s Gospel. St. Irenaeus (ca. AD 189) in his work Against Heresies defended Matthew’s Gospel, which seemed to settle the matter. In fact, he defended against many heresies by citing apostolic authority, affirming the tradition that every Church of Christ must agree with the Church of Rome.
then we can say that the church always had the bible.
We can say that the Church universal, what Scripture calls in Greek kata holos (“throughout the whole”) or “catholic” did indeed have the Bible (at least after the last book was finally written, that is). What we cannot say is that Bible alone = God’s Word. What we cannot say is that Bible was the same collection of texts held everywhere, always, and by all in the early Church. What we cannot say is that the Bible is the sole authority, the sole rule of faith among the Christians of the first century, the 2nd century, etc. They held fast to tradition (Gk paradosis) as taught by those having historic apostolic succession, both oral and written.
Either way, the church always had the bible. But the church did not always recognize which specific writings were inspired.
Well, in the first 1/3 of the first century, we had Jesus, the full Word of God. In the second 1/3 of the first century, we may have had some NT writings, but the Church relied almost exclusively on the oral preaching (Gk paralabano) of the apostles and those ordained by them to teach in the name of Christ. In the third 1/3 of the first century, all of the NT writings were complete, but the Church relied on these writing and STILL upon the oral preaching of the apostles and those ordained by them to teach in the name of Christ.

This has been the true NT Christian epistemology ever since.

Again, “the Church” ought to be distinguished from any Churchman’s opinion, or even a regional understanding. If we make that distinction, the Church kataholos did indeed recognize which specific writings were inspired, but needed an authoritative canon (“law”) so as to standardize what the Church kataholos had always believed throughout the respective jurisdictions.
Do you also see that having other, non-inspired books being circulated and read aloud in the churches indicates that the church was (at that very early time) infallible?
No. I read in the Liturgy of the Hours everyday. It includes mostly Sacred Scritpure. Yet, it also includes non-Biblical “bible commentaries” of the earliest Christians, saints, and doctors of the Catholic Church. That such writings are read do not consitute error. If they are read as though they were inspired Sacred Scripture, then that would be error.

Yet, Catholicism does not teach that any particular or local Church, led by a bishop, is infallible. Only the Church kataholos is infallible in that which she proclaims as absolutely certain to be among the deposit of faith. I think you need to brush up on your understanding of infallibility.
… church infallibility can just as easily be refuted by the same argument.
I think perhaps this says more about your incorrect understanding of infallibity.
 
Wow, between this and the other threads, I’m overwhelved right now. I’ve read (I think - some may have popped up since I’ve typed this…)everything posted at this point but I’ve put hours today into this already and am going to have to call it quits - at least for a while.

I just want to say that I realize I have nothing to substantiate the theory I’m presenting about what happened in the early church. I am only trying to present a possibility. Because the Devil is deceptive, I can’t so easily just accept the church’s claims no matter how historical and persuasive they may seem. I realize that the Devil likewise can deceive me in my own understanding of Scripture. In the end I have to make a choice. I will probably never be fully convinced that either choice is right. God will have to forgive my error b/c in His justice and mercy, He has to excuse my ignorance.

That is why, in the end I may just have to go with the good fruit I see in the church, b/c I need to do more than just belong to THE ONE TRUE CHURCH - I need to live as a Christian ought to. Perhaps seeking those who can best lead me to do that is the best course of action. And it needs to be more than blind faith in the eucharist, and it needs to be more than following the writings of long-gone saints… Community IS important. I’m not talking about community that make you feel good about yourself. I’m talking about the kind that believe in the crucified life; who “walk in love,avoid all uncleanness or covetousness…neither filthiness, nor foolish talking, nor jesting… walk as children of light…walk circumspectly…redeeming the time, b/c the days are evil…not drunk with wine…speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in (their) hearts to the Lord…” I’ve met these people. I’ve never in my life met them anywhere else. I’d have to live in a convent to come close to what I’ve met in this community!

I know there are people like this in the CAtholic church. I’m not saying there aren’t. I just don’t know of any personally. And in light of the possibility that things may not be as they seem, and the church may not be all it claims to be, I may have to make a choice based on good fruit.

Btw Dave, I definately can’t type OR THINK as fast as you type! 😛

I’ll have to get back on this tonight. For now I’ll let what I’ve read cook in my head for a while…

Peace
 
Phew! I’ve got Jeremy on my other thread offering me about as much posting in reply as you,so I’m FINALLY getting to yours…:rolleyes:
JoyToBeCatholic,
But that does not mean that every Scripture reader is given the same charism of the Holy Spirit.
Why not? God’s graces abound yet not everyone responds to them.
St. Paul, for example, wrote a letter to Church at Corinth, did that mean that what he taught orally was no longer authoritative, since he didn’t put it in his letter? Of course not. There aren’t enough books in the world to fully contain the Word of God–the teachings of Jesus Christ…
Well, that’s not exactly what John says. He says Jesus did many other things that cannot all be written. He doesn’t say all the teachings are not written. You don’t really think there is a Catholic teaching that is not found in Scripture, do you?
John 21:25 - “there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.”
This could mean miracles He performed, etc…
This is why Christ ordained men to teach in his name, promising them the assistance of the Holy Spirit in their mission.
but no where promising to assist their successors
Those apostlic men ordained other men to do the same, charging them to ordain others to continue their ministry…
I DO believe it is important to try to pass on the truth, but there is no guarantee they will remain faithful. Besides, b/c you see seeds of certain (now Catholic) beliefs (like real presence, etc.) in ECF writings does not mean the church was actually practicing/teaching those things. I am saying that since these things were not “infallibly” pronounced until hundreds of years later, it’s possible that these beliefs and practices were gradually (and wrongly) embraced by the church. After all, since the people didn’t have Scripture themselves to test the teachings and practices against, it’s entirely feasible that they were led astray through no fault of their own.
2 Pet 1:20 - No prophesy is a matter of private interpretation
If you read the entiretly of that passage it goes on to say “For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.” Peter is telling us that the people who gave us prophesy were speaking on God’s behalf and not just on their own (private interpretation). And even if you do take this verse as you do, it is possible for the H.S. to aid our interpretation.
So why do we need the public interpretation of authoritatively ordained teachers? Because not everyone has the same gifts and the Bible is NOT perspicuous, but many parts are difficult to understand…
I think teachers are important. I’m not saying we don’t need human authority in the church. I am saying that we should 2Tim 2:15 “Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.”
Furthermore, faith comes not by one’s private interpretation of written texts as though it alone were an infallible norm for determining truth, but instead, faith comes from what is heard…
not just though…Eph 2: 8"For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God"
Rom 10:17 faith comes frm what is heard
1 Pet 1:25 God’s eternal word = word preached to you
1 Cor 15:1-2 being saved if you hold fast to the word I preached
I do have faith b/c of the words preached by the Apostles.
Scripture gives us the norm for discerning true Christian doctrine. That norm, the Church, is called the “pillar and foundation of truth” (1 Tim 3:15).
John 17:7"Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth."
Scripture instead teaches that If they refuse to listen to the Church, they are to be treated as one outside the communion of the faithful.
And in correcting the disobedient, the church ought to reason with him from the Scriptures. Again, “thy word is truth”.
To be a protestor against the Church is rather like the sin of Korah’s rebellion (cf. Num 16) which St. Jude warned against (Jude 11). Yet, this is precisely what the Protestant rebellion consisted of.

Jude 10-11 “…these men revile whatever they do not understand…Woe to them! For they…perish in Korah’s rebellion.
The same could apply to the CC if they are not submitting to the authority of God. My dilemma is determining whether or not it truly has.
 
Perhaps you can consider something more carefully for me. What good does it do to have an an inerrant book on your shelf if we don’t have–either individually or collectively–the capability to interpret it without the admixture of error? It might as well NOT be inerrant, right? The effect of inerrancy is gone if there is no way to interpret without admixture of error what that inerrant truth is, right?
Oh my. Let’s use your analogy a little differently. What you are saying is like saying this: What good does it do to have God walking the face of the earth if we don’t have–either individually or collectively–the capability to understand him without the admixture of error? What about those who were alive at the time of Jesus? Did they understand everything Jesus taught? Didn’t He have followers anyway? What led them to believe in Him? Would you say his early followers were deluded by following Jesus b/c no one was guiding them? What about the coming of the H.S.? Were these people not saved until the church evolved? They weren’t already saved b/c they only heard Jesus through thier fallible understanding? I’m much more inclined to believe that we are saved b/c we have faith in the same things those early disciples did.
The entire thesis of a “fallible collection of infallible books” claimed by Protestants is absurd. It is also absurd to point to a book, claiming to non-believers that it is inerrant, yet in the same breath telling the non-believers that we don’t possess the gifts to either collectively or individually interpret that really cool book without the admixture of error
No, the CC is the one that says that. I’m glad you agree that its senseless!
. Wish we did. Darn it, but we don’t. Follow me, trust me anyways, as I think I know where I’m going. :rolleyes:
Now you’re really understanding sola scriptura 👍
Protestants are claiming that although we are pretty sure we have the “meaning of life,” hidden somewhere in that there book, we aren’t absolutely sure what that there book is teaching us. Although we think the truth is in this here really cool book, nobody can have the ability to actually know it.
I think the Protestant is saying that it is possible, through the H.S., to interpret The Book, but most of us don’t claim to have the corner market on that interpretation. I also think most Protestants agre that, even though some things are “hard to understand”, the essentials are there and most anyone with the equivilant of a high-school education can figure it out.
So, although Jesus is the way, the truth, and the life, we can only have various error-filled opinions as to what Christianity teaches, and nobody could ever really be absolutely sure. Not a very compelling “way” is it?
Faith in and imitation of (obedience) Jesus is the “way”, and its really not that hard to understand how to do that. The differences are merely technicalities which God is not limited by; like the mode of baptism for instance. Even when to get baptised isn’t so important. Bottom line: when you believe, you get baptised. Even by CC teaching there is “baptism of desire” etc… so if the need for the remission of original sin through baptism is even true, God isn’t limited to the actual baptism of babies. Btw, I don’t believe the Jews even believe in original sin.
Breaks down into doctrinal relativism, right?
It is true that some people distort the basics of Scripture and try to condone heinous acts through it. They do the same thing with civil law and even the “moral law”. People can get ugly. Most of us are sane and see Hitler and Coresh and extremists as not very good examples of correct interpretation. Some people won’t listen to natural law/conscience never mind the basics of Scripture.
That guy in Missouri from the Unity School of Christianity, the one who claims to be the reincarnation of St. Paul, his “opinion” is just as sure as anybody else’s opinion, right? Don’t you see that this false epistemology allows anybody to re-define Christianity to mean anything they wish?
You can find extreme examples, sure, but like I said, there are insane people. Its a fact of life. Most of us can read the Bible with grace and understand how to be saved. Some people like to complicate things and get overly-technical, and some are power-hungry. THAT is why we have so many divisions.
Protestants seem to admit to the gift of infallibility for the first Christians, but for some strange reason claim this gift did not continue. Yet, they have no Scritpural basis for claiming this gift had a “shelf-life” which expired with the first generation of Christians. Rather ironic claim, for those professing to go by the “Bible alone.”
The basis of the “shelf-life” theory is that many things contradict the Scriptures
 
I agree. They also had the memory of their oral apostolic teachings, their memory of their liturgical practice, and their personal oral “Bible commentaries” of their very own writings.
That is fine, so long as they didn’t eventually throw in a few of their own personal opinions. I’m all for liturgical practice, bible commentaries and such, as long as they line up with Scripture.
Likewise, since he lived in the first century, his understanding of the historical “context” much better than you or I, since he actually LIVED in that context.
I see what you’re saying, but its no guarantee of faithfulness. I’m not saying he wasn’t faithful, but that somewhere along the lines…
Correct. Surely you know that the gift of infallibility isn’t given individually to everyone, nor is it given to anyone such that they exercise that gift ALL THE TIME. Thus, there is always going to be an admixture of error within the speculative theology and various individual opinions within the Church. One should distinguish that which is called in Scripture dogmata from that which is merely speculative.
:hmmm: Perhaps the CC has excused itself by saying this? And how would I distinguish their dogmata and speculation as orthodox unless I compare it to something? (like the Bible 👍 )
I’d say that some individuals and local or “particular” Churches (not the universal Church) claimed that some non-biblical texts were “inspired.” For example, Origen, Patriarch of Alexandria claimed the “Sherpherd of Hermas” was “inspired.” Also, two heads of the Catechetical School of Alexandria included the Didache as among the sacred texts. Yet, the universal Church never made such a claim.
B/c we are talking about the preservation of God’s Word (which was a promise God Himself made) I can agree with the canonization process as God inspired, but I cannot agree that it means I must believe everything else those individuals believed or the instutution as it has developed.
 
…but no where promising to assist their successorsI DO believe it is important to try to pass on the truth, but there is no guarantee they will remain faithful.
I moved this topic to another thread called apostolic succession.
Besides, b/c you see seeds of certain (now Catholic) beliefs (like real presence, etc.) in ECF writings does not mean the church was actually practicing/teaching those things.
What else would it mean?
I am saying that since these things were not “infallibly” pronounced until hundreds of years later, it’s possible that these beliefs and practices were gradually (and wrongly) embraced by the church.
And you are saying this because you believe the promises of Jesus do not apply?

“I will be with you till the end of the Age”
“The Holy Spirit will guide you into all truth”.
After all, since the people didn’t have Scripture themselves to test the teachings and practices against, it’s entirely feasible that they were led astray through no fault of their own.
Because the Holy Spirit was unable to protect them? Which people, not having scriptures, were led astray?
If you read the entiretly of that passage it goes on to say “For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.” Peter is telling us that the people who gave us prophesy were speaking on God’s behalf and not just on their own (private interpretation). And even if you do take this verse as you do, it is possible for the H.S. to aid our interpretation. I think teachers are important. I’m not saying we don’t need human authority in the church. I am saying that we should 2Tim 2:15 “Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.”
Yes, the Catholic Church teaches this.
I do have faith b/c of the words preached by the Apostles. John 17:7"Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth."
Actually, I think faith comes from inside of each person. It can be stirred by hearing, but comes from within, not without.
And in correcting the disobedient, the church ought to reason with him from the Scriptures. Again, “thy word is truth”.The same could apply to the CC if they are not submitting to the authority of God. My dilemma is determining whether or not it truly has.
It is true that scripture is useful for instruction and reproof, but it is not the only source of discipline. When Jesus told the apostles “what you bind on earth is bound in heaven” He empowered them to continue His authority of His church on earth. This is being discussed in another thread also.
 
All…most…there!..:bounce:

I don’t think “error” and “gates of hell prevailing” are the same thing. Heresy is the “obstinate” denial of the dogmata of Christ, not merely error made “in good faith.”
I think just about everyone can fit that category, don’t you? Do you really think Luther was in “obstinate denial”? Do you really think your atheist friend is in “obstinate denial”. I know some people are, but I think (or hope at least) that most make errors “in good faith”. That’s why I love God’s justice. He knows our obstacles to perfect faith:thumbsup:
Do you know what the doctrine of infallibility is? It seems you think that it means absolutely no error by anyone calling themselves Catholic.
lol -I know it doesn’t mean that! (Don’t forget, I’m still a Catholic ;))
Like you, I dont’ agree with that assumption. We know from historical evidence that many in the East did not accept Revelation. It was not “common knowledge” to many local regions or particular Churches of Christianity as to what the true Bible consisted of.
Before I left the CC, I considered the claims of the “orthodoxy”. I find them quite persuasive actually. But I’m not convinced of those necessarily either. I do, however, think they are more true to the original “traditions” of what Christianity later evolved into (IOW, the RCC “evolved” even more).
However, it seems that by all historical accounts, the earliest testimony shows that EVERY Church of Christ did consider the larger version of the Book of Daniel as Scripture. Every one of them. Which begs the question, why don’t Protestants accept this longer version of Daniel? Makes ya wonder, don’t it? See more here: How Big is Your Book of Daniel?
I’ve read excerpts. I believe everything essential to our salvation is essentially there in Bibles without the Deuterocanon.
What we cannot say is that Bible alone = God’s Word
But you cannot prove that it doesn’t. I have to trust in the CC’s definition of what “God’s Word” is, to believe that statement.
I read in the Liturgy of the Hours everyday. It includes mostly Sacred Scritpure. Yet, it also includes non-Biblical “bible commentaries” of the earliest Christians, saints, and doctors of the Catholic Church. That such writings are read do not consitute error. If they are read as though they were inspired Sacred Scripture, then that would be error.
But you have to read them as if they are (in a sense) b/c the church wouldn’t allow them to be read otherwise! Obviously, the church gave the breviary its “Nihil Obstat” to it. That means nothing in it contradicts church teaching, right? And nothing in church teaching is supposed to contradict the bible, right? And the CC is the only one who can even make that determination (of contradicting the Bible), right? It may not pronounce “ex cathedra” that it is infallible, but it is implicitly implied.
I think you need to brush up on your understanding of infallibility.
I know the CC’s definition of infallibility, but I see that, implicity, it goes much further than that definition…

I’m enjoying this conversation. Again, I’m not going to stand firmly to what I’m proposing here. I’m just putting my inner objections in “writing” for the first time. I’m not even convinced of them yet 😉

Peace
 
What else would it mean?
That God kept His promise of preserving His Word. It matters not how.
And you are saying this because you believe the promises of Jesus do not apply?
I don’t believe the promises of Jesus about “the gates of hell” apply to the church as the CC defines it (church).
Which people, not having scriptures, were led astray?
The layman of the early church, not having scriptures, may have been led astray.
Actually, I think faith comes from inside of each person. It can be stirred by hearing, but comes from within, not without.
I don’t think the CC teaches that. Look at Scripture:
Eph 2: 8"For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God"

Peace
 
All…most…there!..:bounce: I think just about everyone can fit that category, don’t you?
Nope :tsktsk:
Do you really think Luther was in “obstinate denial”?
Yep. I don’t think he started out that way, but he sure did end up there.
Do you really think your atheist friend is in “obstinate denial”.
Absolutely, without a doubt, he is just as hard as nails. He believes he is the center of the universe all by his own self!
I know some people are, but I think (or hope at least) that most make errors “in good faith”. That’s why I love God’s justice. He knows our obstacles to perfect faith:thumbsup: lol -I know it doesn’t mean that! (Don’t forget, I’m still a Catholic ;))
Yes, thanks be to God, without whose mercy we will all go into the pit.
Before I left the CC, I considered the claims of the “orthodoxy”. I find them quite persuasive actually. But I’m not convinced of those necessarily either. I do, however, think they are more true to the original “traditions” of what Christianity later evolved into (IOW, the RCC “evolved” even more).
You only think this because you are unfamiliar with the ECF.
I’ve read excerpts. I believe everything essential to our salvation is essentially there in Bibles without the Deuterocanon.
Indeed, the scripture is suffiicient for training in righteousness.
But you cannot prove that it doesn’t. I have to trust in the CC’s definition of what “God’s Word” is, to believe that statement. But you have to read them as if they are (in a sense) b/c the church wouldn’t allow them to be read otherwise! /QUOTE]

Well, you can see the damaging results of that.
JoyToBeCatholic;2064929:
Obviously, the church gave the breviary its “Nihil Obstat” to it. That means nothing in it contradicts church teaching, right? And nothing in church teaching is supposed to contradict the bible, right?
Right.
And the CC is the only one who can even make that determination (of contradicting the Bible), right? It may not pronounce “ex cathedra” that it is infallible, but it is implicitly implied.I know the CC’s definition of infallibility, but I see that, implicity, it goes much further than that definition…
Can you explain how you see that?
I’m enjoying this conversation. Again, I’m not going to stand firmly to what I’m proposing here. I’m just putting my inner objections in “writing” for the first time. I’m not even convinced of them yet 😉
I think you chose the ideal venue! :dancing:
 
Yep. I don’t think he started out that way, but he sure did end up there.
Well, we can’t judge that for sure, but according to some later writings I see the possibility he was. I can only hope I will never be that obstinate. I’m not purposely opposing the faith. I’m sincerely trying to understand it
Absolutely, without a doubt, he is just as hard as nails. He believes he is the center of the universe all by his own self!
Again, you are passing judgement. Let’s leave it to God, eh? And even if he is doing that, he may not be realizing it. With a little godly enlightenment he may be able to see his pride.
You only think this because you are unfamiliar with the ECF.
I am not unfamiliar with them. I’m not a scholar by a long-shot either.
Can you explain how you see that?
I just did:
  1. (The RCC claims) we can’t understand scripture w/out the church’s interpretation. The church has the only proper interpretation of scripture (i.e. an infallible interpretation).
  2. …church **teaching **cannot contradict its infallible interpretation of **scripture **(or its infallible traditions). This means, in essence, that church teachings must also then be infallible.
3)…No writing will be given the stamp of approval (Nihil Obstat) if it contradicts church **teaching, **which is based on the church’s infallible traditions and infallible interpretation of scripture, therefore also making it, in essence, infallible.

Do you see this chain??? No matter how you slice it, the church is always right.

Yet I’ve had priests tell me that the only thing ever pronounce “ex cathedra” is the perpetual virginity of Mary (if my memory serves me right). And if that’s the case, why should I believe anything the church claims? Why believe anything any council ever pronounced? If nothing but Mary was ever pronounced as infallible, than everything the church teaches is up for debate. You certainly have to adhere to the claim of infallibility to claim the CC has, without error, the full deposit of faith. If you can’t tell me each individual teaching is infallible, then I can’t know it really is the truth. (Yes I understand that not everything the church does in practice is unchangeable, even according to church teaching. I’m not talking about clerical dress for instance)

So, either the CC is right about these things, or it’s only right about Mary. Your guess is as good as mine.
 
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