Yes, I do believe that they express two different attitudes. Of course I support the positive version as well (under certain circumstances), but I have reservations about it. And those follow from stressing that one may impose oneself on others. Actually it pretty much orders to impose. (“do unto others…”). Under some conditions the direct golden rule is applicable: for example if someone is hurt, needs assistance and is unable to express their need.
Spock:
Well, sorry it took a while to get back to you. I had it all typed out, this morning at about 2 AM, tried to post it, only to discover that the website was undergoing this update and some routine maintenance. This is a greatly-modified-rewrite!
Your point concerning the differences between the positive enunciation and the negative enunciation of the golden rule, to me is the same as saying either of the following to express one’s pleasure with a movie: (1.) “You know, I liked that movie!” and (2.) “you know, that movie wasn’t bad at all!”
The enunciation of the golden rule in its positive form was was never intended to be taken completely literally. The enunciation of it is a shortened, more succinct form of a greater length proclamation. I can see, from its words, that one could spin it to mean whatever one wants, but, that would be a violation of the very rule itself.
A head waiter tells a server to “deliver this knife to that man in the back.” Is he telling the server to stab the man in the man’s back, or, is he asking the server to transport this knife to the man at the back of the restaurant? If we use our reason, we discover that it will actually help us out of these conundrums. What the rule is succinctly expressing is: Whatever good (ethical, kind, lawful, etc.) treatment you wish, or expect, or would hope for, from others, do also good (ethical, kind, lawful, etc.) treatment unto them. Many of the other iterations of the rule, from other cultures and languages, go into more detail to make it clearer what is being proposed.
An interesting dilemma arises when we consider the sentence part that I highlighted in your reply. The golden rule does, indeed, say that we are expected to render assistance to someone in need. The question is left open, though, as to just how much assistance is sufficient to comply with the intent of the rule. If a man is in dire need, are we expected to be heroic?
Some rules (that have made it into laws) are of the kind that we call, “purely penal.” What is a purely penal law? A good example of one is a highway speed law. No one is injured by your doing 66 in a 55 mile per hour zone (of course, providing no accident takes place). However, if you are caught, you go to court and pay a fine and get some points. One could intimate that even these laws derive from the GR as we would not want some speeder to cause us an accident. Of course, and this is the rationale used by lawmakers to promulgate such laws.
But, the truth is, compared to the number of speeders on the roads today, the odds are minute that 66 in a 55 will be the causative agent of an accident, especially when you consider that most states will up to 9 miles per hour higher without penalty. Furthermore, no one was injured and yet the punishment was imposed. Not to mention the fact that we know that unnecessary speed traps are set up, from time to time, apparently for the purpose of raising revenue!
Would you please give some examples? I like examples, they can help a lot. I am not sure that I understand what you mean by “natural” or “eternal” laws.
The
natural law, also known as the
natural moral law, is called so because it emanates naturally from our reason. If we believe in God, we know from where this emanation arose. God “implanted” it in us, in our souls. For non-believers, it comes from some kind of natural decency in men.
The
Eternal law is what we look for when we look for the ultimate moral basis for the natural law. We know, for example, that despite the fact that mankind can be “good”, at times, we have also noticed that he can be quite “bad” at others. How do we tell the difference? Is the natural law sufficient all by itself to provide an explanation, or, is it derivative of an even higher law, or set of laws? Is the natural law imposed upon us?
In my opinion the negative golden rule expresses the best attitude toward others: permissiveness, respect, an attempt to put oneself into the other person’s shoes. It allows everyone to make decisions for themselves, to lead their life as they consider best. At the same time it puts limitations on one’s behavior.
How is the GR (+ or -) imposed upon us? Is it, in fact, imposed upon us? If there is no imposition of it, why are we obliged to follow it? If a ruler of a society causes its imposition, then that ruler has the power to do whatever he/she wants, correct? Another poster once said, “Genocide can be justified completely.”
It is my opinion - and it parallels many better thinkers than me - that your “secular underpinning” leads us into a morass of conundrums
All that is nice, but if I am not mistaken, we started from a secular underpinning to ethical behavior. And the golden rules (direct or inverse) are precisely that.
I am unwilling to undertake what would become a huge undertaking with regard to this subject. If I may, can I suggest a book for you to read? It will probably take you less time to buy it and read it than it will take to handle it herein. Google:
Right and Reason, by Austin Fagothey. Amazon has it in stock.
jd