How to Eastern Catholics accept the Immaculate Conception?

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Let’s tackle this from yet another angle. Was Christ’s body before the resurrection incorruptible or corruptible?
The Jews believed that after three days, if you were not pounding on your tomb stone, you were dead, as after three days your body began to putrefy and rot (as we see in the story of Lazarus). Jesus rose in three days - less than that, and consider that he’d been brutally executed.

So from an ancient Jewish perspective, no. It had been brutally bled and I doubt there was much untorn skin left, but it was still “fresh meat”.

For modern, scientific eyes, however, the moment Jesus’s organs stopped working, His body was no longer being maintained (as it is when one is alive), and therefore His body did begin to decay (though I personally don’t know how long it took for His organs to shut down).
 
Marybeloved"In this is love, not that we loved God but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the expiation for our sins***.***" 1 Jn 4
Atonement, necessary because we are in bondage to Satan.

St. Athanasius, “Incarnation of the Word,” Chp. 20, writes:“But since it was necessary also that the debt owing from all should be paid again: for, as I have already said , it was owing that all should die”
St. John Chrysostom, 6th homily on Colossians:"…he means that the devil held possession of it, the bond which God made for Adam, saying, “In the day thou eatest of the tree, thou shalt die.” (Genesis 2:17.) This bond then the devil held in his possession. And Christ did not give it to us, but Himself tore it in two, the action of one who remits joyfully."
Christ, by his death, has conquered Death. We see Christ pulling Adam and Eve from the grave in one popular icon.
Thanks, my friend. 🙂 But it doesn’t seem to imply that there’s no debt owing from sin, rather it appears consonant with the belief that there is…Am I just not understanding it clearly?
 
Interesting. I’ve often heard the view that righteousness was bred over generations until the birth of the Theotokos (which is why the genealogy of Christ is so important, other than describing his link to David) expressed in the modern Orthodox Church, but I had no idea that Gregory Palamas was one of its major proponents. Learn something new every day. 🙂
 
I think if there is differences between east and west, it is regarding definition of human “nature.”
Perhaps it is beneficial if we can summon Marduk and Ghosty to our conversation.

I think the West understands that humanity before fall is: human nature (natural) + grace.

That means, what is created, of nature, will perish. Death is part of human finite nature. Man was immortal because of grace. Grace also that sustains man to order his passions towards God.

When Adam sinned, he lost grace. Losing grace man gravitate towards sin.

In Eastern thinking, it was created as immortal.
When man sinned, human nature changed, morphed into something different.

Is my understanding correct?
 
Thanks, my friend. 🙂 But it doesn’t seem to imply that there’s no debt owing from sin, rather it appears consonant with the belief that there is…Am I just not understanding it clearly?
So we know of the various atonement views over the centuries:
  1. ransom (to Satan) - Origin
  2. satisfaction (debt of honor) - Anselm
  3. substitution for original sin (debt of moral injustice) not penal - Aquinas
  4. satisfaction of God’s Wrath - Calvin
  5. government - Grotius
  6. moral influence - Abelard
And that the view of St. Aquinas is the most popular in the Catholic Church. St. Athanasius (of Alexandria) and St. John Chrysostom (of Antioch) are key saints in the eastern Churches. The ransom or debt is part of the ransom view (of Origin Adamantius). But the ransom is a metaphor because God is in no way beholding to Satan and is omnipotent, rather God acted so that man might receive the forgiveness of sins and eternal life, the metaphorical price paid, “by death he conqured Death, and to those in the tomb he granted life”. Also Christ is the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world, the Lamb that is slain that through Him all sins might be forgiven. (John 1:29, John 1:36, Apocalypse 21:14)

1 Peter 2:22-25

22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth.
23 Who, when he was reviled, did not revile: when he suffered, he threatened not: but delivered himself to him that judged him unjustly.
24 Who his own self bore our sins in his body upon the tree: that we, being dead to sins, should live to justice: by whose stripes you were healed.
25 For you were as sheep going astray; but you are now converted to the shepherd and bishop of your souls.
 
So we know of the various atonement views over the centuries:
  1. ransom (to Satan) - Origin
  2. satisfaction (debt of honor) - Anselm
  3. substitution for original sin (debt of moral injustice) not penal - Aquinas
  4. satisfaction of God’s Wrath - Calvin
  5. government - Grotius
  6. moral influence - Abelard
Thank you, my friend. I think I understand what No.s 1 to 4 are. Do you mind explaining 5 & 6?
 
The Jews believed that after three days, if you were not pounding on your tomb stone, you were dead, as after three days your body began to putrefy and rot (as we see in the story of Lazarus). Jesus rose in three days - less than that, and consider that he’d been brutally executed.

So from an ancient Jewish perspective, no. It had been brutally bled and I doubt there was much untorn skin left, but it was still “fresh meat”.

For modern, scientific eyes, however, the moment Jesus’s organs stopped working, His body was no longer being maintained (as it is when one is alive), and therefore His body did begin to decay (though I personally don’t know how long it took for His organs to shut down).
Actually its not “after three days” but “on the third day”. Different perspectives. To be technical about it, Jesus could have been dead for 28 hours only (lets say the sunset at that time is 7pm) because by sunset it would already have been the Jewish “Sunday”. Of course they didn’t discover the tomb until morning. Given they didn’t see the centurions running away on their way to the tomb, the Resurrection did occur a few hours, at least, before the women came.
 
I think if there is differences between east and west, it is regarding definition of human “nature.”
Perhaps it is beneficial if we can summon Marduk and Ghosty to our conversation.

I think the West understands that humanity before fall is: human nature (natural) + grace.

That means, what is created, of nature, will perish. Death is part of human finite nature. Man was immortal because of grace. Grace also that sustains man to order his passions towards God.

When Adam sinned, he lost grace. Losing grace man gravitate towards sin.

In Eastern thinking, it was created as immortal.
When man sinned, human nature changed, morphed into something different.

Is my understanding correct?
The Eastern understanding is that man should, by nature, possess the grace of God within him. Adam’s sin changed that and we are born without grace. Thus we are born dead, and with baptism we are “born again” (not in the Protestant sense of course). Our nature is not different, but damaged.
 
I think if there is differences between east and west, it is regarding definition of human “nature.”
Perhaps it is beneficial if we can summon Marduk and Ghosty to our conversation.

I think the West understands that humanity before fall is: human nature (natural) + grace.

That means, what is created, of nature, will perish. Death is part of human finite nature. Man was immortal because of grace. Grace also that sustains man to order his passions towards God.

When Adam sinned, he lost grace. Losing grace man gravitate towards sin.

In Eastern thinking, it was created as immortal.
When man sinned, human nature changed, morphed into something different.

Is my understanding correct?
I don’t think so. Athanasius is the source of the key ideas on this matter in the East. And I think it is fair to say that he sees immortality as not intrinsic to human nature, but contingent on communion with the divine - even if that communion was a salient feature of the pre-fall man.
 
I don’t think so. Athanasius is the source of the key ideas on this matter in the East. And I think it is fair to say that he sees immortality as not intrinsic to human nature, but contingent on communion with the divine - even if that communion was a salient feature of the pre-fall man.
I think so too. Communion with God is the source of life. When Adam eats the fruit, he rejects communion with God, and as a natural consequence becomes susceptible to death.
 
Thank you, my friend. I think I understand what No.s 1 to 4 are. Do you mind explaining 5 & 6?
Abelard built on Augustine, he wrote:
Our redemption through the suffering of Christ is that deeper love within us which not only frees us from slavery to sin but also secures for us the true liberty of the children of God, in order that we might do all things out of love rather than out of fear - love for him who has shown us such grace that no greater can be found.
Christian Theology: An Introduction, by Alister McGrath, p 407-08.

It is actually the ancient view when used in combination with the ransom view. However, Abelard did not believe in original sin.

Grotius governmental theory, is popular with the New School view of sin: atonement is a satisfaction, not to any internal principles of divine nature, but to the necessities of government. But God takes his laws seriously. The sufferings and death of Christ exhibit divine regard for the law. Christ does not suffer the precise penalty of the law, but graciously accepts the suffering as a substution for the penalty. And finally the key concept: subjectively, the hearts and consciousness of people are so effected that God can pardon the people, without having a detrimental effect on the divine government.

Reference: *Systematic theology: *a compendium and commonplace-book designed for the use of theological students, by Augustus Hopkins Strong, p. 403.
 
This thread is a perfect example of why, on another thread recently, I lamented that Easterns say things like “we don’t believe in Original Sin”, and “death is the primary consequence of the Fall”. When these things are said, and especially when they are presented with false characterizations of Latin theology, it makes Byzantine theology look confused, self-contradictory, and schizophrenic. This statement by ConstantineTG:
The Eastern understanding is that man should, by nature, possess the grace of God within him. Adam’s sin changed that and we are born without grace. Thus we are born dead, and with baptism we are “born again” (not in the Protestant sense of course). Our nature is not different, but damaged.
is almost perfect, and it’s also absolutely identical to the Latin theology (it’s almost verbatim from St. Thomas Aquinas, in fact). The only slight clarification I’d make to it is that Grace isn’t part of human nature, but that human nature is designed to be Graced, much like a oil and gasoline are not part of the nature of a car, but a car can’t function properly according to its nature without them.

Often times theologians, especially of the Russian tradition it seems, will emphasize mortality as if it is something foreign to humans that came from the Fall, but this opens much bigger theological problems than it resolves. Most importantly, Christ was obviously mortal yet He was not Fallen. His mortality was not compelled, to be sure, but His human nature was capable of death despite having no sin and no absence of Grace. If death is something utterly foreign to unFallen human nature this should not be possible, and it’s not something that can simply be brushed aside by “it’s a mystery of Faith”.

Since we can easily surmise that death is an aspect of human nature, just as engine-lockup is an aspect of “car nature” though properly cared for neither nature will experience this inherent potential, the objection often raised to the Immaculate Conception that Mary died doesn’t stand. As we see with Christ, dying does not rule out having an unFallen nature, and so it can’t be used against the Immaculate Conception. On the flip side, the fact that Mary did not experience birth pains can’t be used as proof of the Immaculate Conception because there is no reason to attribute such a miracle to a lack of Original Sin when it could simply be “part of the package” of such a miraculous Virginal Conception and birth. God could have preserved her from pain simply as a special gift.

The most we can say in favor of the Immaculate Conception is that it is fitting that the Mother of God should be most pure from the beginning, filled with every Grace from the beginning of her existence. It’s not necessary, but it certainly fits with the other Glories Christ heaped on His mother. Compared with being the Mother of God, Queen of Heaven, and Mediatrix of Divinity, an Immaculate Conception is really small potatoes if you think about it. Against the Immaculate Conception we really can’t make any solid arguments other than that it wasn’t universally attested to in Apostolic Tradition; for 2000 years it has been a matter of speculation and debate in both the East and West, with great Saints and Fathers on both sides of the issue.

Personally I believe strongly in the Immaculate Conception, but I don’t believe it should have been Dogmatized both because of this historical debate between the Saints, and the fact that it has little theological import to the foundation of the Faith. Nothing of our theology and relationship with God changes whether the Immaculate Conception is true or not, and therefore I personally can’t justify making it a Dogma. I wasn’t asked, however, and I believe it anyway because I believe it’s precisely the kind of thing God would do for His mother.

In short I believe that Easterns, whether Catholic or Orthodox, shoot themselves in the foot by arguing against the Immaculate Conception on theological grounds, as all these attacks on the teaching actually rebound back on Christ. The only real attack that can be made is that the Immaculate Conception isn’t strictly necessary, however fitting, and it has never been a settled matter in the Apostolic Tradition.

Peace and God bless!
 
Personally I believe strongly in the Immaculate Conception, but I don’t believe it should have been Dogmatized both because of this historical debate between the Saints, and the fact that it has little theological import to the foundation of the Faith. Nothing of our theology and relationship with God changes whether the Immaculate Conception is true or not, and therefore I personally can’t justify making it a Dogma. I wasn’t asked, however, and I believe it anyway because I believe it’s precisely the kind of thing God would do for His mother.
I very much like how you explained this.

In another post, I argued that if Greeks and Russians would analyze the decision to announce the dogma from the standpoint of what we Romans were facing at the time, they would have more sympathy for the pronouncement. In the mid 1800s, the Church was confronting widespread denial of our Lady’s holiness, virginity, understanding of her son’s nature.

It was not promulgated to offend them, but to protect the faithful from the pernicious attacks of a legion of agnostic scoffers.

A Lutheran and a Catholic each have websites that present what Martin Luther and Calvin wrote about our Lady: in short, very Catholic. Compare that with current Protestant thought, and the drift becomes sadly apparent.

That was the purpose behind defining the dogma.
 
…and it has never been a settled matter in the Apostolic Tradition.

Peace and God bless!
Correct me if I’m wrong, but hasn’t it been settled, according the ex cathedra proclamation of the doctrine? As in, “This is what has always been believed, stop arguing about it. NOW.”
 
Correct me if I’m wrong, but hasn’t it been settled, according the ex cathedra proclamation of the doctrine? As in, “This is what has always been believed, stop arguing about it. NOW.”
Yes and no.

The pope defined the dogma, and we Catholics must accept it as always true. But the definition of the dogma does not extend to changing history: we don’t have to believe that Church Fathers or medieval scholars believed “the same” as we do when their writings indicate that they did not.
 
Do you know in which work of his this is?
“You have seen how numerous are the gifts of baptism. Although many men think that the only gift it confers is the remission of sins, we have counted its honors to the number of ten. It is on this account that we baptize even infants, although they are sinless, that they may be given the further gifts of sanctification, justice, filial adoption, and inheritance, that they may be brothers and members of Christ, and become dwelling places of the Spirit.”
– St. John Chrysostom, Baptismal Instruction 3:6.
Ancient Christian Writers, p. 57

amazon.com/31-St-John-Chrysostom-Instruction/dp/0809102625

Mentioned in 3:6:
1 remission of sins
2 sanctification
3 justice
4 filial adoption
5 inheritance
6 brothers of Christ
7 members of Christ
8 dwelling places for the Holy Spirit

Two more mentioned in 12:6:
9 purity of soul
10 kingdom of heaven

books.google.com/books?id=xC9GAdUGX5sC&pg=PA581&lpg=PA581&dq=ancient+christian+baptismal+instructions&source=bl&ots=BsaK0-HWzv&sig=qzr0ByV4c89cbpTuO1pU7fxjdhI&hl=en&ei=fii_TtbJDM-1tge_75C8Bg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=9&ved=0CFUQ6AEwCDgU#v=onepage&q=ancient%20christian%20baptismal%20instructions&f=false
 
Yes and no.

The pope defined the dogma, and we Catholics must accept it as always true. But the definition of the dogma does not extend to changing history: we don’t have to believe that Church Fathers or medieval scholars believed “the same” as we do when their writings indicate that they did not.
I am tempted to ask another question, but am afraid of derailing the conversation.

Carry on!
 
Thank you, my friend. I think I understand what No.s 1 to 4 are. Do you mind explaining 5 & 6?
Also, from the Liturgy of Saint Basil:

“He lived in this world, and gave us precepts of salvation. Releasing us from the delusions of idolatry, He guided us to the sure knowledge of You, the true God and Father. He acquired us for Himself, as His chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation. Having cleansed us by water and sanctified us with the Holy Spirit, He gave Himself as ransom to death in which we were held captive, sold under sin. Descending into Hades through the cross, that He might fill all things with Himself, He loosed the bonds of death.”
 
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