How to respond to the "Expedite Heaven" argument from nonbelievers?

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SJ, we are not sentenced to death because of the failings of our first parents! That would obviously be unjust.
I don’t think that’s good theology.

‘Just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned’ (Romans 5.12). This passages is cited by the CCC (#400) in the discussion on original sin for its final claim. This item is repeated below in its entirety:
emphasis in original:
The harmony in which they had found themselves, thanks to original justice, is now destroyed: the control of the soul’s spiritual faculties over the body is shattered; the union of man and woman becomes subject to tensions, their relations henceforth marked by lust and domination. Harmony with creation is broken: visible creation has become alien and hostile to man. Because of man, creation is now subject “to its bondage to decay”. Finally, the consequence explicitly foretold for this disobedience will come true: man will “return to the ground”, for out of it he was taken. Death makes its entrance into human history.
 
More or less. The Muslims who flew planes into the World Trade Center and the Pentagon were acting according to the dictates of their religion. The man who shot Paul Tiller in a church on a Sunday morning was acting according to the dictates of his. So too are Christian missionaries who bring food, clean water and the ability to read to countless peoples around the world. I think they’re all founded on an understating (on the individual level) of the dictates of a religious ideal.
So you believe that “all ‘religiously motivated’ acts are equally compatible/consistent with the religious ideals inspiring them” because… they’re all somehow “founded on an understating [understanding?] (on the individual level) of the dictates of a religious ideal”? You seem to express here some kind of vacuously tautological faith in the proposition that all instances of individual understanding of religious ideals are equally well-founded, and, in particular, that it is not possible to call any such individual understanding a misunderstanding. Have I understood your meaning correctly?
I would. You never really said what assertions I advance without proof.
I certainly had, and have added more examples since.
But that’s not what faith means at least in may circumstances. When it is tied also to reasoning that’s one thing but there are circumstances where questions are only answered with ‘it’s a mystery,’ ‘God works in mysterious ways’ and ‘ours is not to question.’ This is, at best, intellectual laziness. Further, having a spirit of love is not the opposite of being cynical; a skeptic can be as or more loving than a believer.
Sure, that’s not what faith means in many circumstances, and sometimes love and cynicism are compatible, and of course it is possible for a skeptic to be more loving than a believer. But your taking note of all this here is surely nothing but a red herring.
I think of proof as more of a justification than a reason. If I’m out in the woods and saw one deer track in my four hour hike and then much later heard rustling in a bush I would have a reason to think it was a deer but not proof of the same.
Well in what does that “more of a justification” consist?
 
So you believe that “all ‘religiously motivated’ acts are equally compatible/consistent with the religious ideals inspiring them” because… they’re all somehow “founded on an understating [understanding?] (on the individual level) of the dictates of a religious ideal”? You seem to express here some kind of vacuously tautological faith in the proposition that all instances of individual understanding of religious ideals are equally well-founded, and, in particular, that it is not possible to call any such individual understanding a misunderstanding. Have I understood your meaning correctly?
Basically but I think there is enough in the Bible (or Koran or Gita or or or) to justify basically anything and is routinely used for that purpose. Further, I think there are enough varied schools of thought vis-a-vis religious faith that most individual instantiations are simply adherence to these thought-out schools.
Well in what does that “more of a justification” consist?
My off the cuff answer is probability that one is correct. The probability a given line of thought is correct is markedly less when it is based solely on a reason than when it is based on proof. Does that make sense?
 
I don’t think that’s good theology.

‘Just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned’ (Romans 5.12). This passages is cited by the CCC (#400) in the discussion on original sin for its final claim. This item is repeated below in its entirety:
The Catechism of the Catholic Church (1994, revised 1997) on faith, evolution and science states:
  1. Faith and science: “The question about the origins of the world and of man has been the object of many scientific studies which have splendidly enriched our knowledge of the age and dimensions of the cosmos, the development of life-forms and the appearance of man”.
To accept the evolution of man is to accept the fact that death preceded the appearance of man.

It follows that death through sin is not physical but spiritual death.
 
The Catechism of the Catholic Church (1994, revised 1997) on faith, evolution and science states:
  1. Faith and science: “The question about the origins of the world and of man has been the object of many scientific studies which have splendidly enriched our knowledge of the age and dimensions of the cosmos, the development of life-forms and the appearance of man”.
To accept the evolution of man is to accept the fact that death preceded the appearance of man.

It follows that death through sin is not physical but spiritual death.
I suppose they would do well to make that explicit; regardless, thanks for following up.
 
I suppose they would do well to make that explicit; regardless, thanks for following up.
This is an example of the development of doctrine which shows that the Church takes into account scientific discoveries and is not fossilised as some people make out… 🙂 St Paul may be excused for not being aware of the role of death in the evolutionary process but he was right with regard to spiritual truths - and it remains true that moral evil is a frequent cause of death, disease and other physical evils.
 
The Catechism of the Catholic Church (1994, revised 1997) on faith, evolution and science states:
  1. Faith and science: “The question about the origins of the world and of man has been the object of many scientific studies which have splendidly enriched our knowledge of the age and dimensions of the cosmos, the development of life-forms and the appearance of man”.
To accept the evolution of man is to accept the fact that death preceded the appearance of man.

It follows that death through sin is not physical but spiritual death.
1008 Death is a consequence of sin. The Church’s Magisterium, as authentic interpreter of the affirmations of Scripture and Tradition, teaches that death entered the world on account of man’s sin.571 Even though man’s nature is mortal God had destined him not to die. Death was therefore contrary to the plans of God the Creator and entered the world as a consequence of sin.572 “Bodily death, from which man would have been immune had he not sinned” is thus “the last enemy” of man left to be conquered.573
 
Define negative in this situation? Would you disagree with the Buddhist supposition that in this world (and not the Christian next) life is suffering? You both want that suffering to end for yourselves and others (cf. Bodhisattvas) but what circumstance allows for the removal of that suffering is markedly different in the Buddhist (nirvana) and Christianity (Heaven).
Life is more than suffering. Not all desires should be suppressed because they are valuable and a means of fulfilment. Buddhism is negative in denying the existence of the self and the value of transient things, and aiming at the loss of one’s identity.
The origin of suffering is attachment to transient things and the ignorance thereof…Objects of attachment also include the idea of a “self” which is a delusion, because there is no abiding self. What we call “self” is just an imagined entity, and we are merely a part of the ceaseless becoming of the universe.
If that is not negative, what is?!
The food poisoning story is not really canonical and in fact in the canon Guatama encourages his friend to tell the man who gave him his last alms meal that it was not the cause of his death. Jesus too, as I recall, is said ate a final meal before he died but just because it came before his death doesn’t mean it was the proximate cause of his death.
Unlike Guatama Jesus foresaw His death, accepted it as a means of overcoming evil and inspired many people to follow His example by forgiving their enemies rather than resorting to revenge. The Last Supper was not a cause of His death but a celebration of His self-sacrifice and victory over death which was intended to be commemorated and shared by His followers.
I would agree that some aesthetic judgments are objective (e.g. suffering is–to use aesthetic terms–always and everywhere ugly).
I think you agree that to inflict needless suffering is morally wrong, i.e. objectively evil.
Life’s value only comes from our knowing of and living it. As in many things, I think Camus is right. He never said our life is not enjoyable or valuable for our pleasures in living with it only that we cannot reconcile this with our recognition of the fact that it is all ultimately meaningless in that all our works will be brought to naught.
He reconciled it by making his life meaningful by becoming a humanist and fighting for social justice. He took it for granted that - unlike Sisyphus - we have the insight and the power to change the course of events. He did not explain how this is possible.
So positive in some way? Then again I deny the intrinsic nature of the usefulness, purposefulness or importance (value and significance) of things absent someone to use, purpose, value or signify them (i.e. people).
Do you mean things of which we are unaware are useless, valueless and purposeless? Is awareness the only significant criterion? If so we are the only living beings that matter…
That is a physicalist assumption that needs justification - and implies “not only bound to physical bodies” but also “caused by physical bodies”…
And back to philosophy of mind…

In the meantime we cannot sit on the fence - as you have demonstrated by your decision to reject the independence of the mind and reduce it to an epiphenomenon of matter. It is probably based on your belief that science is a more effective guide to reality than philosophy. What else?
Indeterminacy? The laws of thermodynamics are only valid in a closed system so your claim that free will violates them is not valid because we are not a closed system.
Why should we be exempt from subservience to physical laws? The immense complexity of the brain does not lead to emancipation because it remains a physical mechanism no matter how complex it becomes. An increase in the number of neural connections does not alter the fact that they belong to a closed system. Where is the loophole?
And my point is that the activity of persons with the power of choice cannot be entirely due to physical events - even if there is an element of indeterminacy - because no other physical object can.
Clearly there is some level of causation since brain activity is tied to mental processes. The question is, assuming a non-physical mind, how can it interact with a physical brain and body?

How does matter exist? No one knows nor does anyone know how the mind exists and interacts with the brain. What we do know is that the brain influences the mind but the mind controls the brain. If it doesn’t freedom of thought and action is an illusion.
Fair enough and I do appreciate the thought but a glance at anything, especially a brief summation of a philosophically rigorous work, ought not to be unconvincing.
If you cannot give any reason why it is unconvincing I’m not convinced your conclusion is convincing… :).
I have already presented the metaphysical inadequacy of physicalism and thought you might be interested in an eminent empiricist’s view on the nature of knowledge which is regarded as authoritative by many philosophers.
Interesting, it is.

That is an achievement on his part!
The onus is on you to explain why…
Because I don’t find it convincing? I’ve only read, as you’ve suggested, an online summary but to claim that there is no physical referent for ‘is at’ is, frankly, silly. To expound on why I think his thinking is faulty I would need to read through the whole work which I don’t have time for at the moment.

‘is at’ puzzles me… Do you mean you believe everything must have a physical location?
On what do you base that belief? Where is truth located?
 
1008 Death is a consequence of sin. The Church’s Magisterium, as authentic interpreter of the affirmations of Scripture and Tradition, teaches that death entered the world on account of man’s sin.571 Even though man’s nature is mortal God had destined him not to die. Death was therefore contrary to the plans of God the Creator and entered the world as a consequence of sin.572 “Bodily death, from which man would have been immune had he not sinned” is thus “the last enemy” of man left to be conquered.573
How do you reconcile this with the Church’s acceptance of the scientific origin of man? Was bodily death confined to man? If not did animals die before man appeared because man subsequently sinned?
 
Life is more than suffering. Not all desires should be suppressed because they are valuable and a means of fulfilment. Buddhism is negative in denying the existence of the self and the value of transient things, and aiming at the loss of one’s identity.
Surely there is more to life than suffering–at least for the vast majority of the living–but that’s not what the first noble truth is meant to show. Again, your repudiation of Buddhist belief, I feel, is more indicative by the great chasm between your thought and theirs than by any perceived fault.
If that is not negative, what is?!
I think that is first and foremost unsourced. Secondly, I think it is incogent because of the break introduced since ‘thereof’ cannot refer to either suffering itself or attachment. Finally, I think it is different not better but certainly not worse than Christian ideas of suffering, attachment, self and afterlife.
Unlike Guatama Jesus foresaw His death, accepted it as a means of overcoming evil and inspired many people to follow His example by forgiving their enemies rather than resorting to revenge. The Last Supper was not a cause of His death but a celebration of His self-sacrifice and victory over death which was intended to be commemorated and shared by His followers.
You’re missing my point. I was just saying that Guatama didn’t die of food poisoning as you allege and that by the logic applied to get to the conclusion that he had we could blame the crucifixion on the last supper (that one thing happened after another and hence must be because of it).
I think you agree that to inflict needless suffering is morally wrong, i.e. objectively evil.
I think that follows from the self evident principle that ugliness ought not to be intentionally created.
He reconciled it by making his life meaningful by becoming a humanist and fighting for social justice. He took it for granted that - unlike Sisyphus - we have the insight and the power to change the course of events. He did not explain how this is possible.
But regardless of how we change events the biggest events are–unless you are with the singularitarians–fixed and unchangeable. We will die, as will everyone one we have ever known/loved/hated. All that we have ever done will be brought to dust.
Do you mean things of which we are unaware are useless, valueless and purposeless? Is awareness the only significant criterion? If so we are the only living beings that matter.
Not necessarily, the universe is a fearsome big place.
In the meantime we cannot sit on the fence - as you have demonstrated by your decision to reject the independence of the mind and reduce it to an epiphenomenon of matter. It is probably based on your belief that science is a more effective guide to reality than philosophy. What else?
I do not find science and philosophy at odds as your statement above implies since they endeavor to answer radically different sorts of questions. I’m not sure what you’re trying to ask with your ‘what else?’
Why should we be exempt from subservience to physical laws? The immense complexity of the brain does not lead to emancipation because it remains a physical mechanism no matter how complex it becomes. An increase in the number of neural connections does not alter the fact that they belong to a closed system. Where is the loophole?
I don’t understand what you’re asking. There is no loophole. You implied that free will defied the principles of thermodynamics which is blatantly false on the face of it and your comments above prove this. If the brain were a closed system as you imply it would not need the continual addition of energy and matter (i.e. heat and oxygen) to continue to function. To treat the brain as a closed system–that is to say, to cut it free of a human body–will show that free will or life for that matter does not persist in a closed system.
How does matter exist? No one knows nor does anyone know how the mind exists and interacts with the brain. What we do know is that the brain influences the mind but the mind controls the brain. If it doesn’t freedom of thought and action is an illusion.
You didn’t answer my question and retorted with an almost wholly unrelated one. The answer to which, by the way, is that the question assumes that there ought not to be matter without justifying that assumption. If you are advocating an incorporeal mind then you are answerable as to how it interacts with a physical brain and just saying it does and we don’t know isn’t sufficient and is a huge strike against your claim.
If you cannot give any reason why it is unconvincing I’m not convinced your conclusion is convincing… :).
That should be all but self-evident. Philosophy is complicated and an online summary is (a) a secondary source at best and (b) is abridged which can therefore miss important points of the original text for space concerns. Hence, to argue against someone’s claim having only read what someone else wrote about his or her claims is–for these two reasons–often little more than tilting at windmills.
‘is at’ puzzles me… Do you mean you believe everything must have a physical location? On what do you base that belief? Where is truth located?
That is part of a quote from my online summary, the whole of which read ‘Quine objects in principle to Carnap’s proposed translation of statements like “quality q is at point-instant x;y;z;t” into his sense-datum language, because he does not define the connective “is at”.’
 
How do you reconcile this with the Church’s acceptance of the scientific origin of man? Was bodily death confined to man? If not did animals die before man appeared because man subsequently sinned?
Well, as far as I know the Church doesn’t have much to say on “the appearance of man”, as to just how or when humans as we know them-and as Adam & Eve essentially were- with self-consciousness, the ability to reason, free wills, etc. arrived on the scene other than to say that all living humans descended from a single couple who committed an original act of disobedience against God.
 
Well, as far as I know the Church doesn’t have much to say on “the appearance of man”, as to just how or when humans as we know them-and as Adam & Eve essentially were- with self-consciousness, the ability to reason, free wills, etc. arrived on the scene other than to say that all living humans descended from a single couple who committed an original act of disobedience against God.
The Church has stated quite unequivocally:

“The question about the origins of the world and of man has been the object of many **scientific **studies which have **splendidly enriched our knowledge **of the age and dimensions of the cosmos, the development of life-forms and the appearance of man”.

In other words the literal truth of the Genesis account of the instant Creation of man in a heavenly paradise has been ruled out for once and for all.
 
The Church has stated quite unequivocally:

“The question about the origins of the world and of man has been the object of many **scientific **studies which have **splendidly enriched our knowledge **of the age and dimensions of the cosmos, the development of life-forms and the appearance of man”.

In other words the literal truth of the Genesis account of the instant Creation of man in a heavenly paradise has been ruled out for once and for all.
1008 Death is a consequence of sin. The Church’s Magisterium, as authentic interpreter of the affirmations of Scripture and Tradition, teaches that death entered the world on account of man’s sin.571 Even though man’s nature is mortal God had destined him not to die. Death was therefore contrary to the plans of God the Creator and entered the world as a consequence of sin.572 **“Bodily death, from which man would have been immune had he not sinned” is thus “the last enemy” of man left to be conquered.573
**
I didn’t pen paragraph 1008. The statements you bolded in 159 are very general-they don’t tell us specifically how we’ve been “enriched”-or what the Church might accept or not accept about theories regarding origins. We know that polygenism is for the most part denied as having played a role in human origins.

This is an interesting excerpt from a book by Pope Benedict not long before he became pope:

The clay became man at the moment in which a being for the first time was capable of forming, however dimly, the thought of “God.” The first Thou that – however stammeringly – was said by human lips to God marks the moment in which the spirit arose in the world. Here the Rubicon of anthropogenesis was crossed.

Theistic evolution seems to be more or less accepted, God having created it all in any case.
 
The Church has stated quite unequivocally:

“The question about the origins of the world and of man has been the object of many **scientific **studies which have **splendidly enriched our knowledge **of the age and dimensions of the cosmos, the development of life-forms and the appearance of man”.

In other words the literal truth of the Genesis account of the instant Creation of man in a heavenly paradise has been ruled out for once and for all.
No it hasn’t. The Church still very clearly teaches that man is not a mere product of evolution (biological processes), but that each individual spiritual soul is directly created by God. When the first pair of humans were created they could well have been created in a literal kind of Eden, so far as I can see. Anyway, I think this topic is banned, so we should drop it.

Also, not important but: I’m pretty sure it’s Gautama, not Guatama.
 
Basically but I think there is enough in the Bible (or Koran or Gita or or or) to justify basically anything and is routinely used for that purpose. Further, I think there are enough varied schools of thought vis-a-vis religious faith that most individual instantiations are simply adherence to these thought-out schools.
Wow, that’s really surprising to me. You think that all readings of religious texts are equally justified, i.e., that the texts themselves equally justify any reading? In a dispute over the meaning of a religious text, there is never one view that is more justified than another? I can only express my incredulity that you would make what appear to be such absurd and extremely intellectualy lazy claims, while vaunting your own intellectual rigor. Do you further claim that you have arrived at this apparently absurd position by means of something like ‘demonstrative’ reasons? Or do you now admit that your earlier claim about your own eschewal of ‘intellectual laziness’ was false? (indeed, nothing but egregiously naive intellectual pride, I would say)
My off the cuff answer is probability that one is correct. The probability a given line of thought is correct is markedly less when it is based solely on a reason than when it is based on proof. Does that make sense?
This is another vacuously tautological answer. It doesn’t “make sense” because it simply doesn’t tell us anything. If you are to follow, you need proof (you claim), not just reasons, because proofs carry a greater probability of being correct? Can you not see how totally unenlightening that is, not to mention absurd (please try to notice your own self-contradiction here)?
 
No it hasn’t. The Church still very clearly teaches that man is not a mere product of evolution (biological processes), but that each individual spiritual soul is directly created by God.
Each soul
When the first pair of humans were created they could well have been created in a literal kind of Eden, so far as I can see.
That does not resolve the problem of how there could have been physical life without death on this planet - unless you are a Creationist…
Anyway, I think this topic is banned, so we should drop it.
Evolution has been banned but not Creation!
Also, not important but: I’m pretty sure it’s Gautama, not Guatama.
You are right, of course. I pasted Thomas’s spelling automatically - being more intent on the argument than the name… 🙂
 
That does not resolve the problem of how there could have been physical life without death on this planet - unless you are a Creationist…
Correct, it does not, but it does open the way to a fairly obvious inference: man is God’s only creation endowed with an immortal soul and so it is naturally fitting that man should have been destined for immortality from the moment of his creation (indeed, perhaps destined to redeem all of creation by his own perfect act of obedience - which act was in fact accomplished by God himself in the person of Jesus Christ) - whereas other souls naturally were not so destined.

I am Catholic, so certainly I’m a creationist! 🙂
 
Correct, it does not, but it does open the way to a fairly obvious inference: man is God’s only creation endowed with an immortal soul and so it is naturally fitting that man should have been destined for immortality from the moment of his creation (indeed, perhaps destined to redeem all of creation by his own perfect act of obedience - which act was in fact accomplished by God himself in the person of Jesus Christ) - whereas other souls naturally were not so destined.

I am Catholic, so certainly I’m a creationist! 🙂
These days Creationist is usually understood to mean a literal interpretation of Genesis. Do you believe there was life on this planet before the advent of human beings?
 
1008 Death is a consequence of sin. The Church’s Magisterium, as authentic interpreter of the affirmations of Scripture and Tradition, teaches that death entered the world on account of man’s sin.571 Even though man’s nature is mortal God had destined him not to die. Death was therefore contrary to the plans of God the Creator and entered the world as a consequence of sin.572 **“Bodily death, from which man would have been immune had he not sinned” is thus “the last enemy” of man left to be conquered.573
**
I didn’t pen paragraph 1008. The statements you bolded in 159 are very general-they don’t tell us specifically how we’ve been “enriched”-or what the Church might accept or not accept about theories regarding origins. We know that polygenism is for the most part denied as having played a role in human origins.

This is an interesting excerpt from a book by Pope Benedict not long before he became pope:

The clay became man at the moment in which a being for the first time was capable of forming, however dimly, the thought of “God.” The first Thou that – however stammeringly – was said by human lips to God marks the moment in which the spirit arose in the world. Here the Rubicon of anthropogenesis was crossed.

Theistic evolution seems to be more or less accepted, God having created it all in any case.
That seems to imply that the death of biological organisms is not due to sin…
 
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