Firstly, as Bjarne Stroustrup says, “Please remember that ‘proof by analogy’ is fraud.” (
The C++ Programming Language pg. 692)If I should do something in a certain set of circumstances, it doesn’t follow that God must do something in an allegedly analogous set of circumstances.
Secondly, the assertion that I would save them is not necessarily true. Suppose that saving them would require that I kill five other innocent people. If I don’t save them in such circumstances must I really want it to happen?
The “argument” in paragraph two seems to be as follows:
God has a plan for each of us.
God knows every detail of that plan.
God knows every choice we will ever make before we make them.
It is not really “just” to send unbelievers to eternal torture for choices that God already knew about, planned for, and did nothing about?
Briefly, I’d make the following claims: This is more of an emotional appeal than an argument. It really is just for God to condemn people who have freely chosen hell to hell. The fact that God knew that they would choose hell doesn’t change the fact that they chose it, any more than the fact that I know any decent chess player will play a given move means that none of them have free will with regard to that move.
The writer seems to be presenting an ethical system that is going to be incoherent. Notice how he says
“just” in paragraph two yet he wants to hold God to a system where apparently allowing suffering, allowing death, and allowing other people to freely cause either of those, are all wrong. How will the author explain objective morality without God?
Msgr. Glenn writes:
“God is in now sense the cause of moral evil or sin. Sin is possible because of the abuse of free-will by man, and God, having bestowed free-will, does not take it away again even when it is abused. In His loving Providence, God draws good out of evil, even moral evil. God may be called the cause per accidens (that is,* the accidental cause*) of physical evils in the world; yet those evils, rightly undergone, prove to be blessings to man.”
(
Introduction to Philosophy pg. 91)
“In many matters we are in the dark about just how such and such a thing fits in with God’s Providence and Government; we are like the puzzled child undergoing a painful operation at the hands of his surgeon-father; the child cannot see how his own father can hurt him so. Yet the hurt means life to the child.”
(
Introduction to Philosophy pg. 365)
(italics original)
The author of the article says:
If God really exists, why hasn’t he shown us that he exists? Why shouldn’t his existence be a commonly known fact, instead of one of the most controversial topics on the planet? Why hasn’t God just revealed himself, thus sparing me the time it took to write this?
God has given us the ability to reason, with certitude, to his existence.
**
CCC 36** "Our holy mother, the Church, holds and teaches that God, the first principle and last end of all things, can be known with certainty from the created world by the natural light of human reason."11 Without this capacity, man would not be able to welcome God’s revelation. Man has this capacity because he is created “in the image of God”.12
(Bold mine. The relevant foot notes:
11 Vatican Council I, Dei Filius 2: DS 3004; cf. 3026; Vatican Council II, Dei Verbum 6.
12 Cf. Gen 1:27. )
Furthermore, God has revealed Himself and even established an authoritative Church to defend the truth. (cf. 1 Tim 3:15) I would say that’s God’s existence is pretty glaringly obvious. Perhaps just one more miracle would convince everyone?
Luke 16:31 “Then Abraham said, ‘If they will not listen to Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded if someone should rise from the dead.’””
The problem is not that God hasn’t given me the ability to know Him. The problem is that I don’t want to.