How would you answer this double choice question on my son's religion quiz

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Write the letter of the answer that best matches each description.

___ Forgives our sins in confession
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   A. Jesus
   B. priest
Thanks guys!
 
A. The priest is merely there as an intermediary.

Also, why are you taking his exams?
 
I’m not, and as a convert to the faith I fully understand the answer and all of that. I’m just saying that this is a very misleading question. I just wish that the multiple choice did not have Jesus as the other option! I think that I’m over thinking this, but my son who is very knowledgeable about our faith from all of the “deeper” conversations we have as a family, etc. He too was a little baffled by this one. I wish it was A. lector B. priest, lol
I think I’m still a little sensitive to the fact that I don’t want all of the non-Catholic kids parents that attend his school to see this on their test and then buy into all of the lies and myths that are so believed about our faith.

Thanks for your answer
 
Which version of John 20:23 are you reading?
 
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So your son goes to public school? Then why are they quizzing him on religion? And which district is this so I know who to send a thank you to.
 
This isn’t a theological debate. He has two choices on his test. I am merely saying that this is not a good question for A or B. Of course it’s God who is forgiving all sin! However, the priest is merely “the telephone” in confession. You are speaking to God, just face to face via a priest as He knows that we are human beings, both body and spirit ( we are not angels nor ever will be, they are spirit only). The priest is sitting in persona Christi when he is in the confessional and wearing this stole. The priest is able to forgive our sins only in the confessional through the sacrament (making visible what is in-visible)
 
On the other hand, Jesus, when instituting this sacrament, did say ‘whose sins you forgive, they are forgiven, whose sins you retain, they are retained.’
 
Consider two possibilities:
  1. A has power to do X and hands off that power to B. It is now B’s power. B exercises it not acting as agent for A, but acting on his own behalf. (The Ring is now possessed by Frodo, not by Bilbo Baggins, and only Frodo now wields its power.)
  2. A has power to do X and authorizes B to exercise it on his behalf. B has no power in his own right to do X except as agent of A. B can act with respect to X only in the name of A.
The question is, which type did John 20:21-23 institute? Here is what the passage says:

Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you. As the Father has sent me, so I send you.” When he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”

The Catholic Church teaches that this passage instituted the second type, the “agency” variety. (In the confessional you don’t hear EGO TE ABSOLVO A PECCATIS TUIS. You hear EGO TE ABSOLVO A PECCATIS TUIS IN NOMINE PATRIS ET FILII ET SPIRITUS SANCTI.)

There is, however, an interesting consequence of the “agency” interpretation. It is of the nature of a principal-agent relation that A’s investing B with A’s power as agent only does not divest A of the ability to exercise the power directly as well. (Or, to use the analogy of the verse in question, after breathing out the Holy Spirit on the disciples Jesus still had more holy breath in his lungs.) The principal as well as the agent can still exercise the power.

As a result, every Protestant who tells you that he confesses his sins directly to God rather than to a priest cannot be told that his confession is ineffective because the authority to forgive sins is exclusively possessed by Catholic priests. God does not tell the confessing Protestant “Sorry, pal, you can’t come to me for forgiveness anymore; I handed off that power to the Church and its priests 2000 years ago, and I no longer have it. It’s theirs now, not mine. Convert to Catholicism and go to the confessional.”

But notice that the disciples were given both the power of forgiveness and the power of retention. The retention power means that if a penitent is refused absolution by a priest, and later approaches God directly for a second bite at the forgiveness apple, God must turn him down! And this starts to feel very much like a complete hand off of the power of forgiveness – which is the antithesis of the agency theory of investiture.
 
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However, the priest is merely “the telephone” in confession.
I disagree. The priest is actually doing something active here, and not just being a passive conduit to Christ.

Jesus didn’t tell the Apostles that they had the divine power to forgive sins; rather, he told them that when they took the action to forgive a sin, He would forgive it as well. When the priest takes the ecclesial action of absolving a sin, Jesus forgives that sin. (H/T @FrDavid96)

The priest actually does do something, by virtue of his ordination and through the power of the Church to distribute the grace of Christ. When this happens – in just the way Jesus promised us in John 20 – Jesus exercises His divine prerogative and forgives the sins of the penitent.
I’m with you I think it’s a trick question. Depending on the conversation, either answer could be correct.
Not a trick question. “B” is only correct if you’re using really imprecise, sloppy language to reach an imprecise, sloppy understanding… 😉
 
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As a result, every Protestant who tells you that he confesses his sins directly to God rather than to a priest cannot be told that his confession is ineffective because the authority to forgive sins is exclusively possessed by Catholic priests. God does not tell the confessing Protestant “Sorry, pal, you can’t come to me for forgiveness anymore; I handed off that power to the Church and its priests 2000 years ago, and I no longer have it. It’s theirs now, not mine. Convert to Catholicism and go to the confessional.”
Your point is well-taken inasmuch as it points out that God retains His divine right to forgive.

However, it forces us to ask an important question: what is the means by which this forgiveness is found? By what method can a person receive forgiveness for the sins that would otherwise condemn him?

There is only one means to God’s forgiveness that is available to us and which we find in the Gospels, and John 20:21-23 identifies it to us: forgiveness which is initiated by the Church’s minister. (Oh, sure, Jesus forgave sins while here in His earthly ministry… but He knew that people wouldn’t have that kind of access to Him once He ascended.) What has come to be known as “the sacrament of reconciliation” is the means Jesus gave us for forgiveness.

(One interesting discussion that nearly always proceeds from this one is whether non-Catholic Christians can be forgiven of their mortal sins – or whether they’re capable of committing mortal sin at all! I’ll leave that conversation for another day… 😉 )
 
Write the letter of the answer that best matches each description.

___ Forgives our sins in confession

A. Jesus
B. priest
Seems like it is time to have a chat with whoever made the quiz, and maybe the principal as well!

I would have added a third option that said “both”. I used to get into trouble in school for this stuff all the time. When the priest acts in personaChristi there is not a separation between the two, so a false dichotomy has been created.
I think I’m still a little sensitive to the fact that I don’t want all of the non-Catholic kids parents that attend his school to see this on their test and then buy into all of the lies and myths that are so believed about our faith.
Good for you! Speak up.
A has power to do X and hands off that power to B. It is now B’s power. B exercises it not acting as agent for A, but acting on his own behalf. (The Ring is now possessed by Frodo, not by Bilbo Baggins, and only Frodo now wields its power.)
I don’t think this is a good analogy because neither can wield it. As Aragorn stated at the Council of Elrond, only Sauron can wield it, so these two characters can only be custodians of the power in the Ring.
But notice that the disciples were given both the power of forgiveness and the power of retention. The retention power means that if a penitent is refused absolution by a priest, and later approaches God directly for a second bite at the forgiveness apple, God must turn him down! And this starts to feel very much like a complete hand off of the power of forgiveness – which is the antithesis of the agency theory of investiture.
I don’t think this is true. If a priest acts against the will of God, withholding absolution (which was done to no few of the saints), then God will judge them justly.
 
I would have added a third option that said “both”. I used to get into trouble in school for this stuff all the time. When the priest acts in personaChristi there is not a separation between the two, so a false dichotomy has been created.
Or at the very least, “_______ forgives sins through ________”.
 
Or at the very least, “_______ forgives sins through ________”.
I used to write this kind of stuff on tests. Sometimes I would get credit, but if I spelled my objection wrong, I had one teacher that would take off for spelling!!
 
I’m pretty sure they want you to give option A, but I would also add option C, both.

That both God and the priest give forgiveness is clear in the absolution formula used in Eastern Catholic (and Orthodox) Churches of Slavic origin:

May our Lord and God, Jesus Christ, through the grace and mercies of his love for humankind, forgive you all your transgressions. And I, an unworthy priest, by his power given me, forgive and absolve you from all your sins, in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. Amen
 
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A, Jesus.

The priest by his own personal power cannot forgive sins - we are not redeemed by Father Joe, we are redeemed by JESUS.

When we confess our sins to the Priest, we are in fact confessing to Jesus. The priest then acts in persona Christi, in the person of Christ, and absolves us of the sins which we just confessed to Jesus.

In Eastern Christianity this is even more explicit - in the East the Priest does not act in the person of Christ, but rather stands in the Presence of Christ. He absolves us for Jesus vicariously, but makes it clear it is Jesus, not himself, giving us absolution.
 
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A, Jesus.

The priest by his own personal power cannot forgive sins - we are not redeemed by Father Joe, we are redeemed by JESUS.

When we confess our sins to the Priest, we are in fact confessing to Jesus. The priest then acts in persona Christi, in the person of Christ, and absolves us of the sins which we just confessed to Jesus.

In Eastern Christianity this is even more explicit - in the East the Priest does not act in the person of Christ, but rather stands in the Presence of Christ. He absolves us for Jesus vicariously, but makes it clear it is Jesus, not himself, giving us absolution.
It is interesting that we gave opposing answers, while both citing the East. While I’m aware that the absolution formula I gave above was added to the traditional Eastern formula under Latin influence, it is not an Eastern Catholic latinization, as it is used by the Russian Orthodox Church.

The traditional Greek formula does not have the priest directly absolving, but announcing God’s forgiveness. But in the case of the above absolution, the priest’s forgiveness, as representative of the Church, is explicit. The priest seems to speak on God’s behalf as well as his own. Is the priest, as a representative of the Church, offering his own forgiveness on behalf of the Church?
 
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