Here’s the latest on the ongoing saga I’ve been with this anti-NFP antagonist, His words are in bold:
Him **Since you agree that God created humans so that the two purposes of conjugal intercourse are separate (not inseparably connected), then it follows that HV12’s “inseparable connection” is false and HV’s claim that the “inseparable connection” is God’s will is in **fact a rejection of God’s will as known through His act of creation. <<
I replied: A strawman argument. We don’t agree that God created humans so the two purposes of conjugal intercourse are separate. They are no more separate than a human body and a human soul can be. The “separation” you are speaking about is a straw man. We talk about the two “aspects” of the marital embrace, even calling them seperate “meanings”, but the heart of the matter is that fertility is a POTENTIAL.
To which he replies:
**HV12, in the text, speaks of the two significances of the conjugal act: the unitive significance and the procreative significance. John Paul II, in The Theology of the Body, 11 July 1984 audience addressed this.
It is a question here of the truth first in the ontological dimension (fundamental structure) and then - as a result in the subjective and psychological dimension (significance). The text of the encyclical stresses that in the case in question we are dealing with a norm of the natural law.<
Notice that, according to JP II, the truth in the subjective and psychological dimension (significance) results from the truth in the ontological dimension. So the truth in the ontological (objective) dimension is the defining consideration. What is that ontological truth w.r.t. conjugal relations? Ontological truth ultimately rests in the mind and will of God. And, we know that God created humans, unlike virtually all other animal species, so that conjugal intercourse serves two separate purposes: unification and procreation. So we know from His act of creation (See CCC 1147) that God did not will that the unitive and procreative purposes of conjugal intercourse be inseparably connected. And since the truth in the subjective and psychological dimension (significance) results (derives) from the truth in the ontological dimension and cannot contradict it, God did not will that the two significances, unification and procreation, be inseparably connected.
Look at it another way. Who is the subject in the subjective dimension where the truth of the norms of conjugal morality is concerned? It can only be the Creator. And we know his will through His act of creation of humans. As far as humans are concerned, the question is how do we know the subjective and psychological truth (significance) w.r.t. conjugal morality. JP II thought that he was the ultimate subject w.r.t. the norms of conjugal morality. But, JP II was a celibate with no direct conjugal knowledge or experience on which to base his subjective and psychological judgment. Married Catholic couples, however, through their marriage vocation do have direct knowledge and experience of the reality of conjugal life on which to base their judgment. 95% of married Catholics who use birth control choose ABC and reject HVs edicts. From the perspective of 95% of married Catholics who use birth control the two “significances” of the conjugal act are not “inseparably connected”. And their judgment agrees with that of the Creator.**
From what I intially observe is that he is making a strawman of what JPII has said. He also seems to have a few fallacies in his arguments and logic. Would I be correct in assuming this? And finally, what would be the best rebuttal to his counterargument?
