I was recently having a discussion with a person(he goes by the name Sub) about moral relativism and homosexuality in which he stated:
The question was brought up:
BK>>**Is “morality relative”?? **<<
SUB >> Yes. It is relative to the basis by which one judges morality. <<
There are two aspects to arriving at a moral norm. The first is the funadmantal reality or truth on which a moral norm is based; the second is the soundness of the argument by which one proceeds from an absolute truth to a moral norm (conclusion).
If one assesses the morality of gay marriage from the perspective of Christ’s commandment to love your neighbor as yourself, and the fact that some individuals are born gay and therefore loving someone of the same sex is natural, one could perhaps construct an argument for the morality of gay marriage.
If one assesses the morality of gay marriage from the perspective of the role of marriage and sexual intercourse in the propagation of the species, enlightened by Scriptural prohibition of homosexual intercourse, one can construct an argument against the morality of gay marriage.
To which I (BK) stated:** Ultimately what’s the difference between sterilized heterosexuality and homosexual sex? Nothing – for both disjoin procreation from sexual expression. <**<
Sub replies:
NFP also disjoins (excludes) procreation from sexual expression (see JPII L&R pg 235), with the Vatican’s sanction. If there were something immoral about disjoining procreation from sexual expression, the Vatican would condemn NFP. The difference between “sterilized heterosexuality” and homosexual sex is fundamental to the issue of conjugal morality. God created humans so that sexual intercourse serves two separate ends: procreation and unification. He obviously did not will that the two ends be “inseparably connected”. But both ends are proximate ends to the ultimate end of the sexual urge - the propagation of the human species. (See JPII, L&R pg 51) Both proximate ends derive their morality from the fact that they are both intrinsic elements of the ultimate end. The pursuit of “unification” to the exclusion of “procreation” (e.g. NFP) is justified in so far as it serves the ultimate end of the sexual urge - the propagation of the species. Homosexual sex, however, does not serve the ultimate end of the sexual urge. It is not “ordered to” the ultimate end. It cannot be justified on the basis of God’s will as expressed through His creation of humans. It is immoral because it conflicts with God’s will as best we can know it from the perspective that I have outlined.>
I know there there are at least some flaws to his argument what specificly are they?