My question: Does HV only apply to married couples as this priest claims?
** Setter,**
I may be the lone dissenting voice on this thread (note: dissenting to the conclusions discussed so far, not dissenting from
Humanae Vitae!).
I think it seems fairly clear that
Humanae Vitae is only addressing married couples.
So, I think you might want to tread carefully in regard to confronting your priest. I believe he is correct
on that point.
However, just because HV addresses married couples only does not mean contraception is fair game for all unmarried couples, in all situations, etc. But the moral analysis does NOT hinge on
Humanae Vitae, which says that contraception within
marriage is intrinsically evil.
** Brendan,** the longer quote from
Humanae Vitae that you reproduced above is from paragraph 13 and is preceded by this:
- Men rightly observe that a conjugal act imposed on one’s partner without regard to his or her condition or personal and reasonable wishes in the matter, is no true act of love, and therefore offends the moral order in its particular application to the intimate relationship of husband and wife. If they further reflect, they must also recognize that an act of mutual love which impairs the capacity to transmit life which God the Creator, through specific laws, has built into it, frustrates His design which constitutes the norm of marriage, and contradicts the will of the Author of life. Hence to use this divine gift while depriving it, even if only partially, of its meaning and purpose, is equally repugnant to the nature of man and of woman, and is consequently in opposition to the plan of God and His holy will. But to experience the gift of married love while respecting the laws of conception is to acknowledge that one is not the master of the sources of life but rather the minister of the design established by the Creator.
And your second quote is from paragraph 14:
Similarly excluded is any action which either before, at the moment of, or after sexual intercourse, is specifically intended to prevent procreation—whether as an end or as a means.
But the official Latin text is:
Quapropter erret omnino, qui arbitretur coniugalem actum, sua fecunditate ex industria destitutum, ideoque intrinsece inhonestum, fecundis totius coniugum vitae congressionibus comprobari posse.
And
conjugalem actum is the conjugal or marital act. Furthermore if you read paragraph 14 in its entirety, it is clear that it is referring only to marriage.
Again, let me be clear that I am not laying out a position regarding the morality of contraception in general. I am asserting only that
Humanae Vitae seems to be directed only to contraception within the context of marriage. On that point, I think your priest is correct.
** Setter**, I bring this up because I would think it important to any position you take to be certain of
Humanae Vitae’s application. If the priest is right *on that point, *and I think he is, and you contradict him, you might lessen your credibility in regard to other valid points you may have.
What do you think?
VC