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notredame_999
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could a priest in a novus ordo mass face the alter during consecartion, as well as say the prayers in latin if he wanted to?
The priest always faces the altar during consecration. And he can do the Mass bilingually English/Latin if he wants, definitely, just like English/Spanish or anything else. If you watch the EWTN Mass you’ll see this very thing.could a priest in a novus ordo mass face the alter during consecartion, as well as say the prayers in latin if he wanted to?
yes it is not a hybrid it is simply part of the Mass, Latin has always been an option and in fact in the official instruction is and always has been the preferred language even when and where the vernacular is allowed. I have never in 60 years, before or after V2, seen a priest consecrate when he was not facing the altar.could a priest in a novus ordo mass face the alter during consecartion, as well as say the prayers in latin if he wanted to?
Do you mean the priest celebrated ad orientum facing the altar with “his back towards the people”? Yes, this is legitimate and always has been for the ordinary form.could a priest in a novus ordo mass face the alter during consecartion …
Yes, the entire Mass can be celebrated in Latin or partly in Latin and another language. When the Holy Father visited Britain the other week, all the Masses he celebrated were partly in Latin and partly in English.as well as say the prayers in latin if he wanted to?
It’s not a “hybrid” anything. It’s the OF.could a priest in a novus ordo mass face the alter during consecartion, as well as say the prayers in latin if he wanted to?
Guessing that the OP was referring to the priest facing the same direction as the people (ad orientem/versus apsum/however you want to call it), yes, the priest is certainly permitted to celebrate that way-- in fact the rubrics of the Sacamentary appear to assume it:yes it is not a hybrid it is simply part of the Mass, Latin has always been an option and in fact in the official instruction is and always has been the preferred language even when and where the vernacular is allowed. I have never in 60 years, before or after V2, seen a priest consecrate when he was not facing the altar.
Why were the words “for many” changed with “for all” in the first place?I find it very difficult to imagine the O.F. being celebrated with all human beings facing the same direction, and at the same time the priest using the words of consecration “for all”. Do you see that: 1. turning the priest inward, and 2. changing the consecration from “for the multitude” to “for all”, both have a common purpose? It seems to be a self-esteem move in terms of making the people feel less left-out. I, for one, would much rather be ‘left out’ of worship if it means the priest channels all our prayers through his back up to the altar of God. The very underlying philosophy of the words in the O.F. does not seem to jibe with facing ad orientem. It has been democratised; if not, please correct me, for I’d rather not be scandalous.![]()
The OF doesn’t say “for all”. It is only the English mis-translation that uses those words. Those words are not at all part of the “underlying philosophy of the OF.” And it’s a moot point anyway since the OP asked about saying the Mass prayers in Latin so any translation anomolies won’t be a problem.I find it very difficult to imagine the O.F. being celebrated with all human beings facing the same direction, and at the same time the priest using the words of consecration “for all”. Do you see that: 1. turning the priest inward, and 2. changing the consecration from “for the multitude” to “for all”, both have a common purpose? It seems to be a self-esteem move in terms of making the people feel less left-out. I, for one, would much rather be ‘left out’ of worship if it means the priest channels all our prayers through his back up to the altar of God. The very underlying philosophy of the words in the O.F. does not seem to jibe with facing ad orientem. It has been democratised; if not, please correct me, for I’d rather not be scandalous.![]()
I’m not defending the position but one possible reason:Why were the words “for many” changed with “for all” in the first place?
My friend, I dare say that any translation by so humongous a body as the Roman Catholic Church cannot be an accident. The translation of a linguist always reflects the background and beliefs of the man doing the job. We’re not robots who can simply put Latin words into a computer and come out with English - someone had to do that translation by the power of his own mind; and, apparently, his own imagination!The OF doesn’t say “for all”. It is only the English mis-translation that uses those words. Those words are not at all part of the “underlying philosophy of the OF.” And it’s a moot point anyway since the OP asked about saying the Mass prayers in Latin so any translation anomolies won’t be a problem.
Huh? Where did you get “pro omnes” from? As you must know (right?), that’s an impossible Latin phrase, so regrettably methinks you’re just making it up.How can it be an accident… or, rather, how can it not be fundamental to the O.F. that “pro omnes” was interpreted as “pro multis”?, in English? There is a huge difference between the two, grammatically-speaking, and such a big mistranslation is either purposeful to the meaning of the Mass itself, or the International Commission on English in the Liturgy was wildly incompetent. Since many official changes after Vatican II were co-ordinated, I doubt it was simple incompetence.
I never said it was an accident. And I don’t argue that there wasn’t a strong liberal agenda at work in promulgating the English translation. But it’s irrelevant. The OF is a Mass written in Latin. If some group mis-translates something either intentionally or with malintent, it doesn’t cause a change in the underlying Latin or to the Mass itself.My friend, I dare say that any translation by so humongous a body as the Roman Catholic Church cannot be an accident. The translation of a linguist always reflects the background and beliefs of the man doing the job. We’re not robots who can simply put Latin words into a computer and come out with English - someone had to do that translation by the power of his own mind; and, apparently, his own imagination!
How can it be an accident… or, rather, how can it not be fundamental to the O.F. that “pro omnes” was interpreted as “pro multis”?, in English? There is a huge difference between the two, grammatically-speaking, and such a big mistranslation is either purposeful to the meaning of the Mass itself, or the International Commission on English in the Liturgy was wildly incompetent. Since many official changes after Vatican II were co-ordinated, I doubt it was simple incompetence.
A general spirit was at work in translating “pro multis” as “for all”. I think this same spirit can be seen in asking six Reformed pastors into the talks on Liturgy…Please excuse me if this sounds like conspiracy-theory, but my sympathies are with Ottaviani, generally-speaking. Anyway, my 1962 Missal translates this as “for many” in English, next to the Latin. What was the point of re-translating it when a perfectly good translation was right there 9 years before? The purpose must have been ecumenical sentiment.
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The point is that Latin is not an aspect of just the EF. It is the rightful first language of the OF Mass too. To say an OF Mass in Latin isn’t mixing in anything from the EF except by coincidence. Same thing for ad orientem.The O.P. was speaking about various aspects of E.F. and O.F. being mixed, not necessarily about every component. Sorry if my dissection of the topics is wrong
As others have pointed out the OF Latin says “pro multis”; in fact I can affirm that the French translation says “pour la multitude” (for the multitude), and not “pour tous” (for all), as I attend a Mass that is in French and Latin.Why were the words “for many” changed with “for all” in the first place?
First of all you’ve got it the wrong way around. It is not “pro multis” in English, it is “pro multis” in the Latin Editio Typica.How can it be an accident… or, rather, how can it not be fundamental to the O.F. that “pro omnes” was interpreted as “pro multis”?, in English? There is a huge difference between the two, grammatically-speaking, and such a big mistranslation is either purposeful to the meaning of the Mass itself, or the International Commission on English in the Liturgy was wildly incompetent. Since many official changes after Vatican II were co-ordinated, I doubt it was simple incompetence.
Obviously, he meant pro omnibus.Huh? Where did you get “pro omnes” from? As you must know (right?), that’s an impossible Latin phrase, so regrettably methinks you’re just making it up.
Shockingly poor scholarship. Does this “all who are many” doublespeak ever appear outside the context of defending the mistranslation of the consecration? I don’t think so!matt1618.freeyellow.com/novusordo.html#IV. Is “For All” an invalid translation of “Pro Vobis et Pro Multis”?
Strictly speaking, since Latin is the official language of the Church, anything we discuss in English having to do with Church documents or texts is a translation issue. Est quod est.since we have now changed thread topic to translations, I will not bother to add anything. don’t suppose you would care to take this outside or to the proper forum, where the translation issue is discussed ad nauseum.
Indeed. I’m sure you’ll even find some writers who will continue to say that “for many” is wrong.Shockingly poor scholarship. Does this “all who are many” doublespeak ever appear outside the context of defending the mistranslation of the consecration? I don’t think so!
Indeed. I’m sure you’ll even find some writers who will continue to say that “for many” is wrong.Shockingly poor scholarship. Does this “all who are many” doublespeak ever appear outside the context of defending the mistranslation of the consecration? I don’t think so!