M
mets
Guest
I am a young Catholic, not near any point in my life of having sex mind you, but I have nonetheless found myself researching the topic recently, and I have a few questions regarding what the Church teaches on contraception.
While I completely agree with the idea that abortifacients are sinful because you are effectively killing a baby, I do not understand how the Church can say something like a condom is immoral, whereas Natural Family Planning isn’t.
In my opinion, NFP is also birth control when used to prevent pregnancy. You are intentionally having sex for the purposes of pleasure in a way that has a low probability of conception. I.e., how is this any different than a condom? I do not buy into some argument that “if God wills it” the woman will become pregnant with NFP regardless, because unlike abortifacients, condoms fail 10%-20% of the time, so it could happen this way too. You are “spilling the seed” in both cases; in one case on a Fallopian tube, in the other case on a rubber tube.
Perhaps I’m mistaken, but when used outside of the purpose to help find when a woman can become pregnant, I don’t see any difference. I feel like the Church supports this because it assumes people need sex in a marriage, and this is some kind of “less evil” approach. If this were the case, then what is wrong with a condom?
Thanks for your answers.
While I completely agree with the idea that abortifacients are sinful because you are effectively killing a baby, I do not understand how the Church can say something like a condom is immoral, whereas Natural Family Planning isn’t.
In my opinion, NFP is also birth control when used to prevent pregnancy. You are intentionally having sex for the purposes of pleasure in a way that has a low probability of conception. I.e., how is this any different than a condom? I do not buy into some argument that “if God wills it” the woman will become pregnant with NFP regardless, because unlike abortifacients, condoms fail 10%-20% of the time, so it could happen this way too. You are “spilling the seed” in both cases; in one case on a Fallopian tube, in the other case on a rubber tube.
Perhaps I’m mistaken, but when used outside of the purpose to help find when a woman can become pregnant, I don’t see any difference. I feel like the Church supports this because it assumes people need sex in a marriage, and this is some kind of “less evil” approach. If this were the case, then what is wrong with a condom?
Thanks for your answers.