C
Cari
Guest
I was wondering if someone could help me out with this question.
A sacramental marriage is intended to be faithful, lifelong, and, God-willing, fruitful. A woman past childbearing age is eligable for marriage, as is a women who has undergone a hysterectomy. However, a man with impotence cannot enter a sacramental marriage.
I need help understanding why this is, so I can accuately explain it to non-Catholic friends and family.
I understand that not everyone is called to marriage. I understand that marriage is not our “right”. I even understand how, in the two cases involving women, marriage could still be allowed- i.e. God opened Sarah’s womb when she was far past childbearing age, and He caused a Virgin to become pregnant, so why would it be a stretch to imagine he could restore a women’s womb? But the same question remains for me in regards to the men.
If someone could explain the reasoning behind the Church’s teaching on this subject I would be grateful.
I’m sure there’s something obvious I’m missing here.
Thanks,
Cari
A sacramental marriage is intended to be faithful, lifelong, and, God-willing, fruitful. A woman past childbearing age is eligable for marriage, as is a women who has undergone a hysterectomy. However, a man with impotence cannot enter a sacramental marriage.
I need help understanding why this is, so I can accuately explain it to non-Catholic friends and family.
I understand that not everyone is called to marriage. I understand that marriage is not our “right”. I even understand how, in the two cases involving women, marriage could still be allowed- i.e. God opened Sarah’s womb when she was far past childbearing age, and He caused a Virgin to become pregnant, so why would it be a stretch to imagine he could restore a women’s womb? But the same question remains for me in regards to the men.
If someone could explain the reasoning behind the Church’s teaching on this subject I would be grateful.
I’m sure there’s something obvious I’m missing here.
Thanks,
Cari