"I am..." in the Gospel according to St.John

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Ora_et_Labora_1

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In several places in John Jesus is recorded as saying “I am…”. Certain exegetes have said that this is proof of Jesus’ divinity. Now, I’m not putting Jesus’ divinity in question (God forbid!), but I was wondering how can one be certain that the Greek words ἐγώ εἰμι, when spoken by Jesus in Aramaic, were the same as the Tetragramaton?

I’m not denying the exegesis, BTW, and I accept their conclusion. I’m just curious about the finer details.
 
Ora_et_Labora said:
In several places in John Jesus is recorded as saying “I am…”. Certain exegetes have said that this is proof of Jesus’ divinity. Now, I’m not putting Jesus’ divinity in question (God forbid!), but I was wondering how can one be certain that the Greek words ἐγώ εἰμι, when spoken by Jesus in Aramaic, were the same as the Tetragramaton?

I’m not denying the exegesis, BTW, and I accept their conclusion. I’m just curious about the finer details.
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forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=528550&highlight=abraham
 
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