V
Valtiel
Guest
If some one is as educated as this, please help!!!
forum.protestwarrior.com/viewtopic.php?t=75708&start=60
forum.protestwarrior.com/viewtopic.php?t=75708&start=60
The whole thing was based on the interpretation of john 3:5That’s a big, complex thread. Could you please just state your question here?
Thanks.
One key Scripture reference to being “born again” or “regenerated” is John 3:5, where Jesus says, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.”Born Again in Baptism
How could he prove that water=womb? When Jesus tells Nicodemus that he must be born again, Nicodemus says, “How can a person once grown old be born again? Surely he cannot reenter his mother’s womb and be born again, can he?”The whole thing was based on the interpretation of john 3:5
he just proved that water does =womb…
I need some way to debunk him…
Just a simple question WHO exactly gave “he” authority to infallibly interpret the meaning of Scriptures??The whole thing was based on the interpretation of john 3:5
he just proved that water does =womb…
I need some way to debunk him…
I read his post and he did no such thing. He asserted that his interpretation of John 3:5 is that when Jesus said “water” He meant “amniotic fluid.” This is very different from proving that Jesus meant that. (“Proof by assertion” is an extremely common logical fallacy. If you don’t have time to prove something, then go ahead and leave it as asserted, but don’t pretend that you’ve proven it.) If it’s not in the text, it’s interpretation, and Jesus most definitely did not equate the two.The whole thing was based on the interpretation of john 3:5
he just proved that water does =womb…