U
una_ecclesia
Guest
Fair enough.
Another question for clarification. I am assuming that any theory of communism that we are contending with should be internally consistent. Inconsistent forms shouldn’t really be considered here (because why hold to an inconsistent theory). There may not be a direct contradiction with your definition, but there could be a contradiction with the implications.
When it comes to a communist state being completely classless, we are talking about all people having equal access to the goods from the commonly shared productive property, right? You might have associations that are voluntarily formed by all the parties involved (like the Church, for example). Then any sort of division with economic effect that is not based on one’s own merit or free will should be removed. No one should be born or involuntarily placed into a less advantageous state than another. Yet, there is currently precisely such an institution that puts every person into differing levels of advantage and disadvantage, and that is the institution of the family.
We don’t choose our parents and family members when we are born. Even if economically we are classless, our access to these advantages in early stages are influenced by the competence of our parents. In turn, our parents would have the interests of their own children over those of others. This is why Marx saw the natural family as a root of class structures and even private property itself. Now you say that Marx’s communism is not the only form, but, from what I can tell, if he is right that the logical implications of maintaining a classless society where everyone has the same economic and social advantage would involve an abolition of the natural family and typical family relations, presumably in favor of children raised en masse by societies, then his insight would apply to all internally consistent forms of communism. It would also imply a destruction of any social distinctions of the sexes. Otherwise, you will not be able to root out inborn class differences. Any form of communism that would be in favor of maintaining natural family structures where children are raised primarily by their own parents would seem to ultimately go against the aims of communism as you defined it. Obviously, then, we could see how this would contradict certain biblical ideas.
Where is my reasoning off here? How does one retain true classlessness without destroying the natural family and basically replacing it with mass “children farms” where children are publicly raised?
Another question for clarification. I am assuming that any theory of communism that we are contending with should be internally consistent. Inconsistent forms shouldn’t really be considered here (because why hold to an inconsistent theory). There may not be a direct contradiction with your definition, but there could be a contradiction with the implications.
When it comes to a communist state being completely classless, we are talking about all people having equal access to the goods from the commonly shared productive property, right? You might have associations that are voluntarily formed by all the parties involved (like the Church, for example). Then any sort of division with economic effect that is not based on one’s own merit or free will should be removed. No one should be born or involuntarily placed into a less advantageous state than another. Yet, there is currently precisely such an institution that puts every person into differing levels of advantage and disadvantage, and that is the institution of the family.
We don’t choose our parents and family members when we are born. Even if economically we are classless, our access to these advantages in early stages are influenced by the competence of our parents. In turn, our parents would have the interests of their own children over those of others. This is why Marx saw the natural family as a root of class structures and even private property itself. Now you say that Marx’s communism is not the only form, but, from what I can tell, if he is right that the logical implications of maintaining a classless society where everyone has the same economic and social advantage would involve an abolition of the natural family and typical family relations, presumably in favor of children raised en masse by societies, then his insight would apply to all internally consistent forms of communism. It would also imply a destruction of any social distinctions of the sexes. Otherwise, you will not be able to root out inborn class differences. Any form of communism that would be in favor of maintaining natural family structures where children are raised primarily by their own parents would seem to ultimately go against the aims of communism as you defined it. Obviously, then, we could see how this would contradict certain biblical ideas.
Where is my reasoning off here? How does one retain true classlessness without destroying the natural family and basically replacing it with mass “children farms” where children are publicly raised?
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