B
billy15
Guest
Recently, I began reading William Thomas Walsh’s “Characters of the Inquisition”. I’ve wanted to learn more about the Inquisition and what really happened for some time now, and this seems like an excellent book to read.
However, I have just finished the first chapter dealing with Moses, the “first inquisitor”, and I find myself with more questions than before I opened the book, and I haven’t even gotten to the actual medieval Inquisition yet! Reading the numbers of people that were killed from Moses’ commands astounds me. 23,000 in one day after Moses commanded, “let every man kill his brother, and friend, and neighbor,” in response to seeing his people worshiping the golden calf.
Then in response to the Madianites who “had become so dehumanized”, God commanded Moses to see to their “complete extinction”. So Moses sent 12,000 men to annihilate them, and when some returned with women and children as captives, Moses asked why they had saved them and told them to "kill all that are of the male sex, even of the children: and put to death the women that have carnally known men.
Why such severity? Why was there no mercy? I completely trust in God, Jesus, and His Holy Church, but I desperately want to understand why this was allowed when Jesus asked us to love thy neighbor, and Moses says “kill thy neighbor”. Actually, even Moses said “Thou shalt love thy friend as thyself”. And this as I read in the very same book! But why is there such a huge contradiction, seeing as Moses won’t even spare women and children and give them a chance to atone for what they had done.
I know that Jesus came to fulfill the law, and give us new commandments, but I really want to understand why God told Moses to command these things we see as heinous crimes (i.e., murder) to the Israelites. How do I reconcile these horrible things with what Jesus taught? Some help with this would be very much appreciated. Thank you
However, I have just finished the first chapter dealing with Moses, the “first inquisitor”, and I find myself with more questions than before I opened the book, and I haven’t even gotten to the actual medieval Inquisition yet! Reading the numbers of people that were killed from Moses’ commands astounds me. 23,000 in one day after Moses commanded, “let every man kill his brother, and friend, and neighbor,” in response to seeing his people worshiping the golden calf.
Then in response to the Madianites who “had become so dehumanized”, God commanded Moses to see to their “complete extinction”. So Moses sent 12,000 men to annihilate them, and when some returned with women and children as captives, Moses asked why they had saved them and told them to "kill all that are of the male sex, even of the children: and put to death the women that have carnally known men.
Why such severity? Why was there no mercy? I completely trust in God, Jesus, and His Holy Church, but I desperately want to understand why this was allowed when Jesus asked us to love thy neighbor, and Moses says “kill thy neighbor”. Actually, even Moses said “Thou shalt love thy friend as thyself”. And this as I read in the very same book! But why is there such a huge contradiction, seeing as Moses won’t even spare women and children and give them a chance to atone for what they had done.
I know that Jesus came to fulfill the law, and give us new commandments, but I really want to understand why God told Moses to command these things we see as heinous crimes (i.e., murder) to the Israelites. How do I reconcile these horrible things with what Jesus taught? Some help with this would be very much appreciated. Thank you