I don't get how JW's believe Charles Taze Russell had any legitimate authority for his teachings.

[swariffin]

You need to be very careful. If you have not been to Indonesia, you’d better close your mouth and listen. Or, go there. Swariffin is a truthful person. To imply otherwise is insulting and reduces what credibility you had.

No one here is calling you a liar. We disagree very strongly with your beliefs. Let’s keep it simple. Thank you.

Dear Po18guy,

Thanks for your symphathy. As a matter of fact, I was not offended by skelemetti’s posting. He may just misunderstood my posting, and that is normal. English is not my first language. I don’t believe that skelemetti is a rude person either.

 

[swariffin]

The Bible wasn’t written by them either.

Does the claim that the Catholic Church wrote the Bible fit the facts? In answering that question let us first note that the Bible is God’s Word. That being so, then ever since Moses completed the Pentateuch (the five books, Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy) God’s Word has been available to his servants. As other inspired servants wrote it grew and grew so that by the time Malachi penned his prophecy God’s Word, the Bible, had grown to 39 books. These 39 books constituted the sacred Scriptures that Jesus and his disciples used and which they encouraged others to study.—John 5:39; Acts 17:11; 2*Tim. 2:15; 3:15-17.

With the writing of the accounts of Jesus’ life by Matthew, Mark, Luke and John, the letters of Paul, Peter, James, Jude, and John and the Acts of the apostles and Revelation (or the Apocalypse), God’s Word grew to 66 books. As these were written down and circulated among the early Christians they became recognized as part of the Bible. (2*Pet. 3:15, 16) The last of these writings, John’s three letters and his Gospel, were completed about A.D. 98. Shortly thereafter began the compiling of these writings, and there is evidence to indicate that as early as A.D. 170 the canon or catalogue of the Bible we have today was recognized. Both Origen and Eusebius list these same books, and of ten early catalogues extant six likewise give the same list as is recognized today, three others omitting Revelation and one omitting both Hebrews and Revelation. In view of these facts, which show that the canon of the Bible was settled among the Christians in the second and early third centuries after Christ, can the Catholic Church claim to have made the Bible, simply because some 150 to 200 years later her Council of Carthage announced what writings she considered canonical?

Dear Steve,

Indeed what was written by them, at first was not called as a bible for sure. It was gathered together with other books written by other writers, checked for the contents, and those collection of books is called as a bible. Who were those writers? They must be the followers of Jesus regardless what citizenship they had, right? Who the followers of Jesus were called? They were called as Christians, correct?

Where were those Christians live? They were spreaded out in many towns surrounding the Middle Sea, correct? Those early Christians could not have lived all in a single town. What is the definition of “Church”? Is it a building? No. We defined Church as “A Collection of People being Called by Christ”. As those early Christians living in many towns, there were “Churches”, but only from One Denomination only, correct? They were having the same faith, being shepperd by the apostles including by Paul. So, all of them believe in a single teaching rooted from Christ, but spreaded by those apostles including Paul. This single existing denomination is called as Universal. The word “Catholic” means “Universal”. Remember, those writers you mentioned were part of this Universal Church. By definition, they were Catholics.

 

[NanaR]

Dear VWcrazy,

After further reflection, I don’t think your questions are silly at all. In fact, I think they are good questions. And, I had overlooked the obvious Scriptural Answer…

And the answer is:

(Matthew 28:19) Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations…

This verse is not only an authorization, it is also a command that applies to any and all people who view themselves as disciples of Jesus.

This verse applies, to me, to you, to Russell, and even your Pope.

Bible Steve:

I’ve been thinking about this post of yours for several days now.

You say that Matthew 28:19 applies “to me, to you, to Russell, and even your Pope.”

This scripture applies to the true followers of Christ.

Jehovah’s Witnesses refer to members of all other Christian faiths as “professed Christians”. They even use this term to refer to Papias, one of the Early Church Fathers, in the September 15, 1993 Watchtower.

Is it not true that Jehovah’s Witnesses view all other Christian religions as being part of a world empire of false religion – the Babylon the Great of Revelation?

So you are equivocating to say that YOU believe the mandate of Matthew 28:19 applies to Catholics as well as Witnesses.

Your organization teaches that the mandate of Matthew 28:19 is currently being fulfilled only by Jehovah’s Witnesses.

So on what basis of authority do Jehovah’s Witnesses assert that they are the only true Christians on the earth today (for that is definitely their assertion)?

I believe that is sort of a restatement of the OP.

Please enlighten us, Bible Steve.

Pax,

Ruth

ps: As to the earlier discussion of the term “prophet”, with regard to the Watchtower’s continued assertion that they are not an “inspired prophet”, methinks thou dost protest too much…