I don't know how these two things are conciliated

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I have read that is part of the catholic doctrine that God gives his Grace to everybody- independently of the subsequent act of acceptation or rejection done by the man.

But I read about the augustine-thomist system when it refers to predestination that God chooses some people and gives his Grace to them.

So, if the Grace is given to some people, not all
why the first sentence says that the Grace is offered to all?

How I understand the first thesis based upon what Augustine and Saint Thomas said at the second thesis?

I am sure I am not seeing the two thesis in all their perfection, so I need your help for learn about this.
 
Archedreamer said:
I have read that is part of the catholic doctrine that God gives his Grace to everybody- independently of the subsequent act of acceptation or rejection done by the man.

But I read about the augustine-thomist system when it refers to predestination that God chooses some people and gives his Grace to them.

So, if the Grace is given to some people, not all
why the first sentence says that the Grace is offered to all?

How I understand the first thesis based upon what Augustine and Saint Thomas said at the second thesis?

I am sure I am not seeing the two thesis in all their perfection, so I need your help for learn about this.
Click to expand...
This should solve your problem:
For Catholics, when God “establishes his eternal plan of ‘predestination,’ he includes in it each person’s free response to his grace” (CCC 600). Thus, anyone who is finally saved will have been predestined by God because it was God’s predestined plan and God’s grace that went before him and enabled him to be saved.
However, this does not mean that God has predestined anyone for hell. Indeed, the Bible cannot be any plainer than to say God is, “not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance” (2 Pt 3:9). God wills all to be saved. To be damned, a person must willfully reject God’s “predestined plan” for his salvation (cf. CCC 2037): simple enough.
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catholic.com/magazine/articles/predestined-for-freedom
 
Archedreamer said:
I have read that is part of the catholic doctrine that God gives his Grace to everybody- independently of the subsequent act of acceptation or rejection done by the man.

But I read about the augustine-thomist system when it refers to predestination that God chooses some people and gives his Grace to them.

So, if the Grace is given to some people, not all
why the first sentence says that the Grace is offered to all?

How I understand the first thesis based upon what Augustine and Saint Thomas said at the second thesis?

I am sure I am not seeing the two thesis in all their perfection, so I need your help for learn about this.
Click to expand...
God giving grace for salvation to all is Church teaching.

Thomistic predestination is an opinion. An opinion that is ever increasingly hard to reconcile with other Church teachings and is believed by very few in the Church these days.
 
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