J
James_Miller
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When I was in Europe I always asked to be absolved in Latin.
See my post in #96. Can I be of help by explaining that in different words?Is it correct to say one can be forgiven without necessarily being validly absolved?
See my post in #96. Can I be of help by explaining that in different words?
I know I asked this earlier in this thread and you replied but I didn’t completely follow, so please excuse me for re-asking the same question slightly differently.Once again, we need to keep in mind the distinction between “forgiveness” and “absolution.”
God can forgive us at any time, and indeed He does. Even without the Sacrament of Confession, God may/might forgive even the most grievous sins–of course, there is no limit to His mercies.
However, by Divine design, we are absolved only through the ministry of a validly ordained priest with the faculty to absolve, using the necessary and essential form for validity–ego te absolvo, I absolve you.
This thread really is not a question about forgiveness, it’s a question about absolution.
A priest can indeed forgive sins. He does so ministerially–as the representative of God who forgives absolutely.I know I asked this earlier in this thread and you replied but I didn’t completely follow, so please excuse me for re-asking the same question slightly differently.
What is the difference between “forgive” and “absolve”? Scripture tells us that Jesus said that who ever the Apostles FORGAVE, their sins would be FORGIVEN. Given what Jesus said, why can’t a priest “forgive” sins?
Well, a confession can be invalid but the person may still be forgiven their sins because of perfect contrition.Many Catholics are not as scrupulous as you think, or are not well educated in regard to the exact words, uttered by priests (eg the difference between I absolve and I forgive in the case presented). But when they approached the confessional, they have every good intention to reconcile with God.
Would their confession be considered invalid because of the mistake (intentional or otherwise) of the priest?
So what if the soul confessed a mortal sin, did not see any mistake on the part of the priets and expected he was forgiven by God? If he died, would he be punished in hell because the confession he had, which he considered valid, was invalidated because of the mistake of the priest for using the “I forgive” instead of “I absolve”?
If such happened to me…I would tell the Priest…excuse me Father …you said “I forgive you” not “I absolve you”…I’m sorry to drag this thread up again, but I’m going round in circles… Having been told by a number of priests in Confession that I have scrupulous tendences (at the least), uncertainty on this issue of validity of the priest’s absolution is driving me mad.
I don’t know how many mortal sins I’ll have to confess again or their respective kinds because I can’t remember each time that the formula for absolution was said with alterations. I’ve sent one of the chaplains on campus an email requesting Confession in the past hour…waiting anxiously for his reply.
It’s awful that I won’t know whether his opinion on this matter is right or not.![]()
No…the act of contrition per se is not needed for a valid absolution…in some places it is customary for the penitent not to make such in the sacrament itself. You went to confession I would imagine with contrition…the act per se is not needed for validity.Does this mean that If I were not capable to finish my Act of Contrition that the confession and absolution was not valid either? When am I capable of receiving Eaucharist? Are temporal punishments and eternal punishments absolved?
some alterations can happen without the absolution being invalid…I can’t remember each time that the formula for absolution was said with alterations.
You can receive the Eucharist immediately–as soon as the priest pronounces the words “I absolve you”Does this mean that If I were not capable to finish my Act of Contrition that the confession and absolution was not valid either? When am I capable of receiving Eaucharist? Are temporal punishments and eternal punishments absolved?
There are differing opinions on such.the issue is one of licety, not validity.
Opps …I see the post was from Feb of 2010! I see it was the next post that brought this thread to life againBookcat, thank you very much for your reply. I’ll offer prayers for you and yours - particularly as I believe you’ve helped me with another issue before!
If my memory serves me correctly, the priest whom I emailed requesting Confession (lovely man and a good priest) graciously heard my Confession and things were okay, thank God.![]()

No. It goes directly to validity.Considering there are over 30 different approved forms for the absolution, depending upon which rite the priest belongs to, and several use “I forgive you,” the issue is one of licety, not validity.
You are correct, there are some who would disagree with your opinion, and I am one of them. Our notion of sacramental validity is so entrenched in the categories of matter and form, that for many the slightest deviation from the norm is overwhelmingly troublesome. Sacramental grace is not a mere causal relationship between the sign and the grace, it is an encounter between man and God. In this encounter, God approaches man, not the other way around. To deny yourself the gift of God in the Eucharist because you are worried that the priest said “forgive” instead of “absolve” is almost Pharisaical. Actually no, not almost, it is Pharisaical. It is not a magical invocation where if you get the encantation wrong the spell doesn’t work. The Christ in which I place my faith would not say, “Sorry, I know you had the right intentions but the priest said it wrong, so I’m withholding my grace from you.”*]Secondly, I would RECOMMEND that you do not receive the Eucharist until this matter is cleared up one way or the other. Remember, that in the Eucharist, we invite our God, to Whom sin is greatly offensive, to enter into our soul. If we truly love Jesus, we would not invite Him to come into a place that was filled with sin that was offensive to Him.
First, I would recommend that you use lower case "c"hurch here. There is only one "C"hurch.No. It goes directly to validity.
Absolution is a juridic act of the Church. As such, the Church decides what constitutes valid form–each Church sui iuris decides its own form. What is a valid juridic form in one Church sui iuris, is not a valid juridic form in a different Church sui iuris.
In the Latin Church, there is only one valid form of absolution, “I absolve you…” The other forms used by other Churches have no bearing on this.