I found Hail Mary in the Holy Bible

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jasonconners7

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Luke 1:28 (NABRE)

And coming to her, he said, “Hail, favored one ! The Lord is with you.”

The Bible says “a matter is established by two or three witnesses” my witnesses are my friend Gabriel from my therapy group and my friend from the hospital who both are believers in Jesus and told me that if a Bible is a Holy Bible it can’t be tampered with.

What do you think of this? Please be kind in your response.
 
Also from Luke 1:
41 And when Elizabeth heard the greeting of Mary, the baby leaped in her womb. And Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit, 42 and she exclaimed with a loud cry, “Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the fruit of your womb! 43 And why is this granted to me that the mother of my Lord should come to me?
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We know that the Hail Mary prayer is biblical.The last potion was added during the Black Plague,when so many were dying.🙏
 
If what you’re asking about is why we say “full of grace” instead of “favored one”, it’s a matter of translation.


Luke 1:28 in the Douay-Rheims:
“1:28 And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.”
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Latin Vulgate:
“1:28 Et ingressus angelus ad eam dixit : Ave gratia plena : Dominus tecum : benedicta tu in mulieribus.”
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RSV-2CE:
"1:28 And he came to her and said, ‘Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you!’
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Maybe he is thinking of some translations of ‘highly favoured one’, and not specifically, “Hail Mary”.

It is not ‘tampering with the Bible” to pray “Hail Mary” (the woman who is the specific subject according to St. Luke of the angel coming to HER) instead of “Hail favoured one”.

Above all, nobody is saying that the Hail Mary is ‘completely and directly quoted from the Bible”. Plenty of prayers prayed by Protestant Christians are not directly from the Bible but use certain passages. Nobody seems to have a problem with pastor Billy Bob saying something like “Blessed are the poor, the disenfranchised, the marginalised, and the migrants, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven”. Old Billy Bob added on some newer categories that are more ‘contemporary’ but Billy BoB was not tampering with the Bible but rather paraphrasing; a perfectly legitimate function of the language.
 
stpurl said:
Maybe he is thinking of some translations of ‘highly favoured one’, and not specifically, “Hail Mary”.
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Catholics trust the Catholic translations.
If one worries about this then one had better learn the original Bible languages and read Scripture in those.
 
It wasn’t a question I was just saying I found it in the Bible.
 
Please bear in mind that Luke didn’t write his Gospel in English. What he wrote was κεχαριτωμένη, which has been translated in several different ways. Here are some of them:

https://biblehub.com/luke/1-28.htm

.
 
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Found what? What do you object to, EXACTLY?

The use of ‘full of grace” (found in Bible translations?
Or the use of “Mary” as a proper name?
 
I wasn’t objecting to anything I was saying if it’s in the Holy Bible from an angel saying it it’s righteous to say.
 
Yes, Catholics have known this for the many many centuries the Hail Mary has been said. It defies the Protestant claim that it is some type of “idolatry” to pray the Hail Mary. Of course it is all Biblical. I’m glad you have just discovered this truth.
 
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