Well, yes, but…excepting that a marriage isn’t a marriage outside the Church until it is established that the marriage was in fact outside the Church. That might be trivial to do, there is not the same level of examination as when a literal presumption of validity exists–and I admit I was using the legal term incorrectly–but whether the establishing is done or not is not trivial. No, it was never valid, it’s not even a close call, but the call still has to be made.
In other words, I meant that a Catholic who previously attempted marriage, but outside the Church, may not simply tell the priest and fiance that he or she is free to marry. Once an attempt at marriage has been made, the fact of invalidity has to be established. All previous attempts at marriage have to be examined for whether any enjoys a presumption of validity in the true legal sense. That is probably a better way to put it.
In other words, I am not talking about a private exchange of rings from some boxes of Cracker Jacks. As far as I know, those are not even recognizable as attempts at marriage. Im contrast, if the marriage was a civilly-recognized marriage and was never dissolved by divorce or annulment in civil court, that is an impediment to marriage. The marriage must be dissolved in the eyes of the state…not for the marriage to be truly invalid, but for the person who attempted that marriage to be truly free to marry. The person may not simply conclude that it was invalid and then go ahead and marry, and that would even be true if the state allowed polygamy. That is true, correct?