I need help understanding Baby Baptism

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Its just SO Confusing!! Many bible verses say to believe in Jesus THEN get baptized. Mark 16:15,16; Acts 2:38, and a few more. But I talked to my Priest and he gave me a good reason but now, that it is soaked in, it doesn’t make much since now, ill probably ask his reasoning. But can any of you help me with this doctrine? Thank you
 
It depends on whether one is being Baptized as an older person (beyond the “age of reason”) or as a baby or small child.

A person who is Baptized at an older age will be expected to believe in Jesus, as well as undergo instruction in either CCD (older kids) or RCIA (adults). The Bible verses you cited were written as instruction to people who could read - presumably older people.

If a person is Baptized before being able to competently arrive at a belief then obviously this is not a requirement.

It was the same way under the Old Covenant. Normally, the rite of passage into the Covenant (ie, circumcision) was administered to infants. However, there were also adult converts (proselytes) who would be circumcised, but obviously not until they had come to believe in the God of Abraham.
 
Here’s some good reading from the Early Church Fathers:

Irenaeus

“He [Jesus] came to save all through himself; all, I say, who through him are reborn in God: infants, and children, and youths, and old men. Therefore he passed through every age, becoming an infant for infants, sanctifying infants; a child for children, sanctifying those who are of that age . . . [so that] he might be the perfect teacher in all things, perfect not only in respect to the setting forth of truth, perfect also in respect to relative age” (Against Heresies 2:22:4 [A.D. 189]).

“‘And [Naaman] dipped himself . . . seven times in the Jordan’ [2 Kgs. 5:14]. It was not for nothing that Naaman of old, when suffering from leprosy, was purified upon his being baptized, but [this served] as an indication to us. For as we are lepers in sin, we are made clean, by means of the sacred water and the invocation of the Lord, from our old transgressions, being spiritually regenerated as newborn babes, even as the Lord has declared: ‘Except a man be born again through water and the Spirit, he shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven’ [John 3:5]” (Fragment 34 [A.D. 190]).

Hippolytus

“Baptize first the children, and if they can speak for themselves let them do so. Otherwise, let their parents or other relatives speak for them” (The Apostolic Tradition 21:16 [A.D. 215]).

Origen

“Every soul that is born into flesh is soiled by the filth of wickedness and sin. . . . In the Church, baptism is given for the remission of sins, and, according to the usage of the Church, baptism is given even to infants. If there were nothing in infants which required the remission of sins and nothing in them pertinent to forgiveness, the grace of baptism would seem superfluous” (Homilies on Leviticus 8:3 [A.D. 248]).

“The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to infants. The apostles, to whom were committed the secrets of the divine sacraments, knew there are in everyone innate strains of [original] sin, which must be washed away through water and the Spirit” (Commentaries on Romans 5:9 [A.D. 248]).

Cyprian of Carthage

“As to what pertains to the case of infants: You [Fidus] said that they ought not to be baptized within the second or third day after their birth, that the old law of circumcision must be taken into consideration, and that you did not think that one should be baptized and sanctified within the eighth day after his birth. In our council it seemed to us far otherwise. No one agreed to the course which you thought should be taken. Rather, we all judge that the mercy and grace of God ought to be denied to no man born” (Letters 64:2 [A.D. 253]).

“If, in the case of the worst sinners and those who formerly sinned much against God, when afterwards they believe, the remission of their sins is granted and no one is held back from baptism and grace, how much more, then, should an infant not be held back, who, having but recently been born, has done no sin, except that, born of the flesh according to Adam, he has contracted the contagion of that old death from his first being born. For this very reason does he [an infant] approach more easily to receive the remission of sins: because the sins forgiven him are not his own but those of another” (ibid., 64:5).

Here’s a tract and more excerpts: catholic.com/library/Early_Teachings_of_Infant_Baptism.asp
 
Don’t forget that historically speaking, there were periods in the church when the opposite was quite common: delaying Baptism until the deathbed. After all, if you die immediately after Baptism, you get to go straight to Heaven, right? 😉 (Dogma #177, “Baptism effects the remission of all punishments of sin, both the eternal and the temporal.”)

That’s quite the gamble to take on. 🙂 Isn’t it better to become baptized into the Body of Christ early on?
 
Don’t forget that historically speaking, there were periods in the church when the opposite was quite common: delaying Baptism until the deathbed. After all, if you die immediately after Baptism, you get to go straight to Heaven, right? 😉 (Dogma #177, “Baptism effects the remission of all punishments of sin, both the eternal and the temporal.”)

That’s quite the gamble to take on. 🙂 Isn’t it better to become baptized into the Body of Christ early on?
They were doing this because many penances were years and even a decade long. So the Church changed this to encourage everyone to get baptized and go to Confession when needed.
 
Its just SO Confusing!! Many bible verses say to believe in Jesus THEN get baptized. Mark 16:15,16; Acts 2:38, and a few more. But I talked to my Priest and he gave me a good reason but now, that it is soaked in, it doesn’t make much since now, ill probably ask his reasoning. But can any of you help me with this doctrine? Thank you
You have to look more deeply into the Scriptures.

Several times it mentions that someone is baptized, them and their whole household. First, whole households included babies. Second, does it say that any of the other people in the household believed first? No, they were baptized based on the faith of the head of the household.

Another thing to remember, circumcision was the entrance into the Old Covenant, and was a prefigurement to baptism. Baptism is the entrance into the New Covenant. And circumcision was performed when the baby boy was 8 days old. His entrance into the Old Covenant with God was based on the faith of his parents. Same with baptism.
 
Its just SO Confusing!! Many bible verses say to believe in Jesus THEN get baptized. Mark 16:15,16; Acts 2:38, and a few more. But I talked to my Priest and he gave me a good reason but now, that it is soaked in, it doesn’t make much since now, ill probably ask his reasoning. But can any of you help me with this doctrine? Thank you
Note the context. In Mark, for example, Jesus doesn’t say that you have to be old enough to believe first. He just says that those who believe and are baptized are saved. He is talking to the 11, and basically telling them to preach the word and baptize. That is the context. Because adults would not get baptized if they didn’t believe. So Jesus is saying, spread the word and baptize. He’s not saying belief is necessary before baptism, but for adults it would naturally work that way.

In Acts, again adults were being addressed. People were asking what they should do, and Peter told them to repent and be baptized. He was answering a question. Nobody asked if their kids or infants could be baptized, but note that it’s already been said that entire households were baptized.
 
Its just SO Confusing!! Many bible verses say to believe in Jesus THEN get baptized. Mark 16:15,16; Acts 2:38, and a few more. But I talked to my Priest and he gave me a good reason but now, that it is soaked in, it doesn’t make much since now, ill probably ask his reasoning. But can any of you help me with this doctrine? Thank you
Does it really say THEN ? or does it say AND. AND does not imply one must come first.

Jesus grew in wisdom AND stature. He did not get all his wisdom, then get all his stature.

An infant is baptized into the faith, becomes part of the body of Christ, and grows in faith and stature. As his ability to have faith grows, we hope and pray, this faith grows along with this ability.

If you are baptized as an adult, you do not have perfect faith, your faith should continue to grow through your life. So perfect faith is not a prerequisite of baptism.
 
In the OT circumcision was a sign of the covenant between God and man. God in the OT did not keep children from receiving this sign but rather had them circumcised shortly after their birth (before they could accept him). In fact God himself was circumcised as an infant so I find it extremely difficult to believe that the same God that did not have a problem with children entering into his covenant with circumcision would have a problem with children entering into his new covenant with baptism.

Circumcision did not have an age limit.
Baptism does not have an age limit.

[BIBLEDRB]Matthew 19:14[/BIBLEDRB]
 
Its But I talked to my Priest and he gave me a good reason but now, that it is soaked in, it
best pun of the week congratulations

Yes even in Jesus instruction to his apostles evangelization comes first, that is the proclamation of the Gospel, then faith as in the initial movement of grace to ask for baptism, and in baptism, Faith, Hope, and Charity are the theological virtues endowed by this sacrament itself. A profession of faith is required, by an adult, or in the case of an infant, by the adult who is responsible for his life and education in the Faith. And yet the sacrament itself strengthens and increases faith, raising it from a human act of will and assent, to a theological virtue, and action and will taken in union with God.
 
JD27076, could you repeat the explanation your priest gave?

As for faith, is is required for an infant to be baptized. The child is baptized on the faith of his parents since he does not yet have faith of his own. That is why baptism will be denied if there is doubt the child will be raised Catholic.

A verse that might help:
Mark 2:3-5
They came bringing to him a paralytic carried by four men. Unable to get near Jesus because of the crowd, they opened up the roof above him. After they had broken through, they let down the mat on which the paralytic was lying. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, “Child, your sins are forgiven.”

Jesus healed the paralytic when he saw “their” faith. Who are “they”? Certainly, “they” include the men who carried the stretcher and opened the roof. We don’t know whether the paralytic himself was among “them” with faith. Jesus could heal the man because of the faith of those who brought the man.
 
JD27076, could you repeat the explanation your priest gave?

As for faith, is is required for an infant to be baptized. The child is baptized on the faith of his parents since he does not yet have faith of his own. That is why baptism will be denied if there is doubt the child will be raised Catholic.

A verse that might help:Mark 2:3-5
They came bringing to him a paralytic carried by four men. Unable to get near Jesus because of the crowd, they opened up the roof above him. After they had broken through, they let down the mat on which the paralytic was lying. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, “Child, your sins are forgiven.”Jesus healed the paralytic when he saw “their” faith. Who are “they”? Certainly, “they” include the men who carried the stretcher and opened the roof. We don’t know whether the paralytic himself was among “them” with faith. Jesus could heal the man because of the faith of those who brought the man.
Superb translation! Child, your sins…; it does not say “man”, or “son”, but “teknon” specifically meaning “child”.
Mark 2:5 ιδων δε ο ιησους την πιστιν αυτων λεγει τω παραλυτικω τεκνον αφεωνται σοι αι αμαρτιαι σου

Up and until age 12, the Jewish child’s sins are borne by its father’s responsibility; but at age 13 they become subject to the Torah (LAW) themselves; our modern day “bar-mitzvah” being a later ritual after the temple was destroyed – but preserving the meaning of the boy asking questions among the elders and priests at age 12.

I had never thought of the paralytic as a child, and it brings to mind also that a child – in Jewish law – could bear the sin of the father down to the third and fourth generation. Family implies a communal responsibility during the primary years of a child’s life. How much better to be adopted by God, than left only under the legal standing of an earthly father.
 
JD27076, could you repeat the explanation your priest gave?

As for faith, is is required for an infant to be baptized. The child is baptized on the faith of his parents since he does not yet have faith of his own. That is why baptism will be denied if there is doubt the child will be raised Catholic.

A verse that might help:
Mark 2:3-5
They came bringing to him a paralytic carried by four men. Unable to get near Jesus because of the crowd, they opened up the roof above him. After they had broken through, they let down the mat on which the paralytic was lying. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, “Child, your sins are forgiven.”
Jesus healed the paralytic when he saw “their” faith. Who are “they”? Certainly, “they” include the men who carried the stretcher and opened the roof. We don’t know whether the paralytic himself was among “them” with faith. Jesus could heal the man because of the faith of those who brought the man.
Wow!! That makes that whole story clearer to me!!
Huiou Theou:
Superb translation! Child, your sins…; it does not say “man”, or “son”, but “teknon” specifically meaning “child”.
Mark 2:5 ιδων δε ο ιησους την πιστιν αυτων λεγει τω παραλυτικω τεκνον αφεωνται σοι αι αμαρτιαι σου

Up and until age 12, the Jewish child’s sins are borne by its father’s responsibility; but at age 13 they become subject to the Torah (LAW) themselves; our modern day “bar-mitzvah” being a later ritual after the temple was destroyed – but preserving the meaning of the boy asking questions among the elders and priests at age 12.

I had never thought of the paralytic as a child, and it brings to mind also that a child – in Jewish law – could bear the sin of the father down to the third and fourth generation. Family implies a communal responsibility during the primary years of a child’s life. How much better to be adopted by God, than left only under the legal standing of an earthly father.
Yes! Isn’t that great?
It is always exciting to me when a passage of Scripture opens up, after a lifetime.
I am so very glad I read this thread. I hope it helps the OP!!
 
For a really good explaination of the Church’s stance on Baptisim read “Crossing the Tiber” by Steven Ray. He basically lays down his conversion story and actually goes through the Bible, Tradition, The Early Church Fathers and the Current Teachings of the Church, and shows you how they all really only align with only the Catholic point of view regarding Baptism.

Also, if in the Old Testament God had 8 day old male infants circumsized to show they are part of his Covenant, and Jesus established the New Covenant which begins at Baptism why would he exclude children from the New Covenant — wouldn’t that seem kind of strange to allow infants/children from one era to covenant with him but not infants/children of a new era?
 
Wow!! That makes that whole story clearer to me!!

Yes! Isn’t that great?
It is always exciting to me when a passage of Scripture opens up, after a lifetime.
I am so very glad I read this thread. I hope it helps the OP!!
🙂

I find it difficult at times, especially with the Dominican fathers’ Q&A’s I’ve read, to help the OP much.
There are no end of tricky ins and outs to these questions, and often a bit of pride in a particular jargon or thinking that a half baked answer is good enough.

But, I do agree – it makes the story clearer to me as well that it is a child.
I also find it exciting to learn any new detail about scripture; for the more I know – the more I long to harmonize other things I have heard and not fully understood.

The article linked to by C.M. was about the best I have seen through “This Rock”/“CAF” It was fairly well thought out, bringing together the most salient features of the problem – although it too left out many details that may be required for a full understanding; eg: the difference between Jewish boys and Girls, St. Paul’s “Circumcision is worth nothing” rant, and related historical details about the relationship between the ideas of circumcision, and baptism which replaces circumcision.

I mean, a woman, Sophira was the one who had to be frightened into circumcising Moses’ child according to the agreement of God with Abraham; For death threats were included in that passage (Exodus 4:24-26) because of a lack of circumcision of a child; so Circumcision has a value and even an obligation to some people – and obviously not to others.

1Cori 7:19 Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing: but the observance of the commandments of God.

For, clearly to a Jew or Hebrew, circumcision is a commandment of God regarding the Covenant of Abraham; Though circumcision itself is nothing. There is, in baptism, a certain parallel in that water baptism itself is little more than circumcision; a physical washing rather than an arbitrary sign about “a book” of skin that is written on – a sign that God commands, to be sure;

I do find it curious that many non-Catholic Christians seem to think baptism commanded by Jesus does not apply to children although our lord never explicitly excuses them from it;

A man, in those times, might have in his household a wife, children, slaves (indentured servants), all who are under his authority and care. Would he deny to his slaves a baptism that he would ask of his wife? I mean, Does someone who is ruler over others and dependent on them at least tell them how they are to serve him? (if not comand them!); I find it hard to imagine that someone would not oblige their servants to support them in their faith unless they thought them sub-human; which is a more modern slave concept.

Or again, what is a household of a “woman”, except the property she can own, and the children whom she bore?
Even between Jacob’s wife Leah, and second Rachel, they refused to share each other’s children – but each had only their own children (which they asked of Jacob, lest they “would die” ).

How odd, in such an absolute relationship of the day, that a mother would not command her children to help her live out her christian life by the safest route possible – making them Christian; For in her old age – they were the only thing that was truly hers and had to honor her in her religion.

Why else, did mothers bring infants (non-walking) to Jesus, except that Circumcision was obviously not enough insurance?
😦

I don’t think I have ever read a single instance of where a child was told to “believe” and then be baptized. An adult wouldn’t be baptized unless it was a popularity rage – or that they believed --so it makes sense that the command to convert and believe would come first; no one wants popularity hypocrites at the baptismal font except other hypocrites; but an infant isn’t able to be a hypocrite for some time still far off. They may keep their baptism clean far longer than an adult, and honor it more fully out of blind obedience.

I think that is part of the reason that “baptism” is called the sacrament of faith – for it imparts faith to a child over time when properly performed. They can’t believe consciously first, so they are baptized first – since they are assuredly free of the sin of hypocrisy found in adults.

🤷

Perhaps the Holy Spirit, who becomes a part of the life of every christian, is then the voice of the child that is otherwise mute by reason of age. For a man is composite; and the fact that Jesus became man is the fullness of what we receive only in part; his spirit is also our spirit; His father, My ABBA through the voice of his spirit;

Galat 4:6 And because you are sons, God hath sent the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying: Abba, Father.
 
Why else, did mothers bring infants (non-walking) to Jesus, except that Circumcision was obviously not enough insurance?
Yes! That is why whenever I hear or read the story of the women bringing their children to Jesus, that I see it clearly as an invitation to baptism. (And I am then frustrated when someone doesn’t see it that way).

I , too, find C.M.'s writings to be especially clear & well thought out.🙂

God bless you & yours, now and always.
 
I have heard some refute circumcision as an argument supporting infant baptism by using Romans 2:28-29. They assert that it is the inward condition of the heart, not the physical ritual that truly makes one a Jew. Since the New Covenant is “more perfect” than the Old Covenant, baptism should be even more a condition “of the heart” and “of the Spirit” (i.e. a conscious choice of faith by the believer not yet possible for an infant). Hence, there must first be the “circumcision of the heart” for the ritual (baptism) to be effectual or at all meaningful.

In other words, one can’t say, “Baptism is just like circumcision” in order to “prove” infant baptism is valid. If one needs the inward, “circumcision of the heart” to truly be a Jew, then to truly be a Christian would all that much more require a condition of the heart that an infant is incapable of.

I disagree. I think Paul is talking more about loss of salvation rather than the initial entrance into covenant. How would you all respond to their argument?
 
Huiou Theou and Zooey,

I am glad that the Spirit has opened the Scripture more fully to you.

Still, I didn’t mean to mislead with the reference to the paralytic. We don’t know his actual age or whether he was bar mitzvahed (as the Gospel doesn’t say).
 
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