I respectfully ask evangelical, protestant and sola scriptura proponents...

  • Thread starter Thread starter joe370
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
These Protestant Bibles all contained the books later dropped by Protestants…
1384 Wycliffe Bible
1534 Luther’s German Bible
1537 The Cloverdale Bible
1539 The Taverner Bible
1541 The “Great” or “Cromwell’s” Bible
1551 The “Tyndale/Matthews” Bible
1560 The Geneva Bible
1568 The Bishop’s Bible

Council Trent 1545-1563

King James 1611

sceti.library.upenn.edu/sceti/printedbooksNew/index.cfm?textID=kjbible&PagePosition=1

The original King James can be viewed at the above website. You may want to look at it.

The “Apocrypha” was officially removed from the English printings of the KJV in 1885 leaving only 66 books.

In 1880 the American Bible Society voted remove the “Apocrypha” Books from the King James Version…They were cheaper to print with fewer pages.

So on whose authority were these books removed. Recall all Protestants are fallible and next who is it that speaks for all Protestants?

So what happened from 1611 to 1885. Was Protestant thought filled with error while using the Bible with the deuterocanonical?

Tell me and anyone else where the Bible declares itself to be inspired by God?

What are you talking about. One Catholic priest like Augustine does not make for Doctrine of the Church unless in agreement with the OHCAC or in council as a voice in unison. Where do you get your ideas?
Augustines view of total depravity would be defined as Calvinism today.
 
jericho777;8463611:
Jericho…a little more facts…all bibles were the same till about the early to mid 1800s…the 7 OT books werer finally removed from the Bible by a Bible society to save on printing costs…to save on printing costs
…so you are following a tradition of men…without any connection to any apostolic tradition…who took it upon themselves to remove the OT books…so they usurped authority.

And since you are saying you follow the jewish canon…this will be referred back to the council of Jamnia. The Council of Jamnia reasoning was only proposed in about 1871…by a hypothesis of a Jewish Council…for more info…catholicdefense.blogspot.com/2011/07/can-protestants-rely-upon-council-of.html

While we can’t say that the Jamnia rabbinical school ever produced a Biblical canon, we can point to a major contribution of the school. It produced an ugly prayer called the Birkat haMinim, which cursed the Christians as sectarians, and prayed to God that for these “sectarians,” “let there be no hope, and may all the evil in an instant be destroyed and all Thy enemies be cut down swiftly; and the evil ones uproot and break and destroy and humble soon in our days. Blessed art You, LORD, who breaks down enemies and humbles sinners.” This prayer was to be prayed every Sabbath, and it forced the Jewish Christians to stop worshiping with the non-Christian Jews in synagogue.

So…unwittingly, you are following a canon developed against Christianity.

And can you point where this chapter and verse is? (if you have not been asked and responded).

2Tim 3:16 Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness,
 
And this is where many non-Catholics have a profound misunderstanding. No point in time has the CC denied God inspired men to write Sacred Scripture. It is not a question WHAT God did,but it is a question of…HOW did God canonize the OT and the NT. Through human instruments in His Church called Catholic bishops…a historical fact!

No amount of denials can erase a historical fact.
So who canonized the OT?
 
Augustines view of total depravity would be defined as Calvinism today.
If the Calvinists were really following all of St. Augustine’s teachings, they would all be celibate Catholic priests, nuns, and monks, since he believed that our sexuality is the source of concupiscence, and in order to avoid it, one must altogether avoid sex, including within marriage.

(Luckily for the human race, this was only his personal opinion; it was not a doctrine of the Church.)
 
St. Augustine of Hippo was ordained to the Catholic priesthood in the Diocese of Hippo in 391 AD. He became the Bishop of Hippo from 395 AD until 430 AD. He was one of the priests in attendance at the Council of Hippo in 393 AD, which was the Council that proposed the canon of the Scriptures that was finally accepted by the Pope in 405 AD. (There were a variety of them for the Pope to choose from. Carthage, Rome, and Hippo each came up with the same one, which is why the Pope believed that this was the one given by the Holy Spirit.)

What was his source of inspiration? Not the Bible - he is one of the guys who gave us the Bible. Where did that group get the Bible from? It didn’t just fall from Heaven into their laps. He (together with the Bishops and other priests in his Diocese) had to go through many books to find those that were in accord with the Holy Tradition, as handed down by the Apostles.

The Calvinists probably like many of his doctrines, and in that sense he might be a “father” to them, but Calvinism as such did not exist prior to the mid-1500s AD, and certainly not prior to the birth of John Calvin, its founder.
Pardon me but the books of the bible were already in existence and being used as such by the church. Was not the OT already considered to be scripture at that time? Peter even calls Paul’s works scripture 2Peter 3:16.

It’s not about Calvinism but Augustine’s view of total depravity which is contrary to catholic doctrine. Why wasn’t his doctrine challenged by the church at that time.
 
The Council of Trent, December 13, 1545, to December 4, 1563.
That’s going a little far. The Jews had the LXX, at the time of Christ, after all, and they officially canonized the OT in 90 AD at Jamnia. Christianity, being a religion rooted in Judaism, simply incorporated the already existing Jewish scriptures as the Old Testament.
 
Essentially, it’s pretty clear that the canon was not decided by dictate from on high so much as came together organically through widespread and universal use of certain books, both OT and NT. It was a very, dare I say, Protestant kind of process. 😉 The various councils and pronouncements were just affirming what already existed in the churches.
 
That’s going a little far. The Jews had the LXX, at the time of Christ, after all, and they officially canonized the OT in 90 AD at Jamnia. Christianity, being a religion rooted in Judaism, simply incorporated the already existing Jewish scriptures as the Old Testament.
The Jews themselves will tell you that Jamnia had no authority to give a canon of the Scriptures. It was not a Council; it was a group of theology students. Their “canon” was simply the reading list that was handed out to the students by their instructors for their particular studies. It was never intended as a complete list of the Old Testament Scriptures.

Traditionally, the Church has always used the LXX, which was proposed (but never canonized) about 200 years before the time of Christ.

It wasn’t officially canonized until after the Lutheran Rebellion, simply because that was the first time anyone in Christendom had ever questioned it. The Fathers of Trent were simply settling the question that had arisen from the Lutherans.
 
So who canonized the OT?
If it is the Christian Bible,then the Catholic Church with its bishops as I stated. Now not to change the subject,but many non-Catholics claim the Jews already adhered to a 39 OT canon prior to Jesus,but as of today I have never found such a source confirming it as a fact.
 
Essentially, it’s pretty clear that the canon was not decided by dictate from on high so much as came together organically through widespread and universal use of certain books, both OT and NT. It was a very, dare I say, Protestant kind of process. 😉 The various councils and pronouncements were just affirming what already existed in the churches.
How was it a protestant kind of process?

The various councils and pronouncements of the catholic church were just affirming what already existed in the catholic churches? So the catholic church was not affirming because of certain disputes regarding the canon? What about the 7 NT books that were, as per protestant scholars, disputed by some, (from the early part of the 2nd century to the time that the CC hammered out the details) - which was why the catholic church convoked on at least 4 different occasions via synod, to settle the matter for all?
 
gerhardc;8465105]“Sanctify them by Your truth. Your word is truth.” (Jesus, John 17:17)
What or who is the Word?
Scripture is the word of God.

Jesus is the Word made flesh…
The events concerning and the sayings of/about Jesus is the Word. Refer John 1, “In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God.”
Yes Jesus is the Word.
Thus, the Gospels and the Epistles and the revelation of John all form part of the Message about the Kingdom of God through Christ - it is the Good News, the Gospel, the Word of God.
Agreed, the good news is the word of God.
 
The seven “fringe” books (IIRC 2 Peter, Jude, James, Hebrews, the Johannine letters, and Revelation) were question but were never widely excluded AFAIK. The disputes over the canon are exaggerated (ironically by Roman Catholics on one hand and skeptics of Christianity on the other). For the most part there was already widespread agreement.

BTW, quick question on the RC view of the Deuterocanon: do you believe that the 66 book Protestant Bible “containeth all things necessary to salvation”? Or do the Deuterocanonical books HAVE to be included for this statement to be true?
 
The seven “fringe” books (IIRC 2 Peter, Jude, James, Hebrews, the Johannine letters, and Revelation) were question but were never widely excluded AFAIK. The disputes over the canon are exaggerated (ironically by Roman Catholics on one hand and skeptics of Christianity on the other). For the most part there was already widespread agreement.

BTW, quick question on the RC view of the Deuterocanon: do you believe that the 66 book Protestant Bible “containeth all things necessary to salvation”? Or do the Deuterocanonical books HAVE to be included for this statement to be true?
I think that both the Book of Sirach and the Book of Wisdom contain “that which pertaineth unto salvation.” I don’t think there is a clearer image of Christ than in the Book of Wisdom, and if you want to know how to behave around the King of Kings, you can’t go wrong following the Wisdom of Sirach. And you also can’t go wrong in imitating the Maccabees in their struggle to the death for their faith. Clearly, it would have been of comfort and inspiration to the early Martyrs, and I am sure it provides similar consolation to those who die for their faith today in China and in the Middle East.

I also think that every married couple needs to read the Book of Tobit.

I wouldn’t omit any of them, to be honest - certainly, if one is to be “furnished unto good works” it would be advantageous to read them all.
 
Yes, but what I’m asking is do you put these Books on the same level as the rest of the Old Testament? Are they just as authoritative as Exodus or Ezekiel? The Anglican view is that they should be included in our Bibles but are not on the same level. with regard to authority, as the rest of the OT. This is also the view held by the Eastern Orthodox.
 
You seem to imagine that everything written at the time of Christ was “the Bible.”

We keep on trying to explain to you that the Bible didn’t actually exist (even in theory) until 405 AD. There were no actual Bibles in existence yet until St. Jerome finished the first one, several decades later.
Oh contraire the bible did exist as individual letters and books. They were actually addressed to churches or individuals in existance at the time. It was copied and passed around to the churches for instruction doctrine and reproof. How or why would the ECF’s allow questionable material to be used by the church if it was not of God? In your paradigm you allege church leaders guided the church by ST apart from the word. The entire framework for Christianity is contained in scripture and was implemented from the beginning.
 
Yes, but what I’m asking is do you put these Books on the same level as the rest of the Old Testament? Are they just as authoritative as Exodus or Ezekiel? The Anglican view is that they should be included in our Bibles but are not on the same level. with regard to authority, as the rest of the OT. This is also the view held by the Eastern Orthodox.
There is no distinction made between them in Catholic Bibles - they are placed in their proper order (not separated into a different section) and there is nothing to differentiate them from the rest of the Old Testament. If I hadn’t grown up Protestant and memorized the 39 books in order, I wouldn’t even realize there was anything different about them.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top