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YoungTradCath
Guest
I see. This makes sense. But this leads me to something else. Receiving the Eucharist on its own does, in fact, confer grace upon any disposed person who receives it. You say that there are no spiritual fruits of a mass if the sacrifice, thus the mass, is not completed, is invalid. But the people still receive grace from the Eucharist itself, correct?Mass ≠ Eucharist. Eucharist ∈ Mass.
Yes, if one species were not consecrated, you would not have a Mass. You would still have one consecrated species of the Eucharist, though. The Eucharist is just one element of what makes up a Mass, which also includes such elements as an offertory and the priest’s Communion.
In fact, let’s take that last as an example. We know that if the priest fails to receive Communion, then the Sacrifice is not completed and consequently there is no Mass, since the Mass is the completed Sacrifice. Now, it is possible (prohibited, but as a matter of law, not theology) for him to receive Communion last, after the congregation. Suppose that he distributes Communion to the congregation first, but then runs out or forgets before receiving himself. That does not mean that all the hosts the congregation received revert back to being bread, or that, by some back-in-time process, they were now always bread. No, the Eucharist was valid, and the people received Communion. It just wasn’t a Mass! So it does not have the spiritual fruits of a Mass; the priest cannot accept a stipend for having said Mass; etc.
The lack of grace from the invalidity of the mass does not nullify the grace from the Eucharist. That is, there are two “sets” of grace to be got at every mass. Am I right?