F
fix
Guest
I have not read every post so I do not know if this was posted:
Catholic Teaching on Contraception: For Married Couples Only?
Catholic Teaching on Contraception: For Married Couples Only?
Who says its morally permissible for a rape victim to take the morning after pill?…Then why is it morally permissible for a rape victim to take the morning after pill?..
Gee, that looks like what I’ve been saying all long… he even uses Aquinas there at the endI have not read every post so I do not know if this was posted:
Catholic Teaching on Contraception: For Married Couples Only?
The theological tradition is similarly consistent. When Thomas Aquinas formulates his argument against contraceptive-type acts, he singles out every deliberate attempt to render a male ejaculatory act (“emission of semen”) incapable of generating. In fact, his discussion of contraceptive acts is in the context of a discussion of why intercourse between non-married persons is wrong [2]. For Aquinas, this type of act is contra naturam (against nature). Aquinas’ contra naturam argument against contraceptive acts dominates Catholic theological literature on the question up until the middle of the 20th century.
Since texts of canon law going back 700 years, papal encyclicals in the 20th century and the most influential theological arguments in Catholic history formulate the norm against contraceptive-type acts as universal, applied to every act by every person intended to render sexual acts sterile, the view that the Church’s condemnation only applies within marriage—and therefore does not apply to (i.e., the acts can be legitimate and even obligatory for) fornicators, adulterers and prostitutes—ought to be set aside as inconstant with Catholic traditional teaching.
The short of it is “some” theologians think it might be permissible and a few bishops have allowed it only after an negative ovulation test has occurred.Who says its morally permissible for a rape victim to take the morning after pill?
If the pill is abortifacient, what medical condition would justify its use?But the pill is abortifacient. Everyone here has said the pill is sinful unless if it’s for medical purposes.
Objects are not sinful. Only actions can be sinful.But the pill is abortifacient. Everyone here has said the pill is sinful unless if it’s for medical purposes.
SOME people, myself included, have suggested that perhaps using barrier contraceptives (non abotifacient) outside of marriage is a moot point.
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=4618If the pill is abortifacient, what medical condition would justify its use?
Would the woman from a moral perspective have to abstain from sex while using the pill?
You’re probably right. I do have a tendency to digress.Anyway. that is really probably a topic for another thread though.
Oops! Apparently, Fr. Serpa created quite a controversy. I’ve now read your two cites which argue very effectively against Fr. Serpa’s position. Unfortunately, I got timed out before I could edit the above posting.You’re probably right. I do have a tendency to digress.
But your cites and comments have been very helpful. I have found such incredibly useful information on this thread.
The first cite you mentioned (to a 2004 exchange on this forum) includes a reply from a priest (Father Vincent Serpa) that says it’s morally permissible to use the pill for medical reasons even if you’re not abstaining from sex - based on the distinction of unintended miscarriage. If this is correct, wouldn’t it recast some of the discussion we’re currently having on this thread?