If I Spoke Greek

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The Greek prefix “epi” means “on” or “above”.

The great Wiki records the Greek suffix “ousios” as “a specific substance, essence, being, person, or thing”.

If I put those words together to form a word kinda like, for example, “epiousios”, what do you think that would mean? All hypothetically, of course.
 
The Greek prefix “epi” means “on” or “above”.

The great Wiki records the Greek suffix “ousios” as “a specific substance, essence, being, person, or thing”.

If I put those words together to form a word kinda like, for example, “epiousios”, what do you think that would mean? All hypothetically, of course.
Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrich Greek Lexicon:
**EPIOUSIOUS, ON **according to Origen, De Orat. 27, 7, coined by the evangelists …1. deriving it fr. EPI and OUSIA necessary for existence (in agreement w. Origen, Chrysostom, and Jerome are e.g. Beza, Tholuck, HEwald, Bleek, Weizsäcker, BWeiss, HCremer; Billerb. I 420; CRogge, PhilolWoch 47, 1927, 1129-35; FHauck, ZNW 33, ’34, 199-202; RWright, CQR 157, ’56, 340-45; HBourgoin, Biblica 60, ’79, 91-96; Betz, SM p. 398f, with provisional support).

I did not find anything other than an NT reference in Liddell Scott so it appears it was coined by bible writers. It is found in Matthew 6:11.
 
Oh, well, there you have it. It turns out that the word has been used. Once. By Jesus, no less! Let’s look at the verse.

Matt 6:9-13 said:
8Be not you therefore like to them, for your Father knoweth what is needful for you, before you ask him.
Code:
9Thus therefore shall you pray: Our Father who art in heaven, hallowed be thy name.

10Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven.

11Give us this day our epiousios bread.

12And forgive us our debts, as we also forgive our debtors.

13And lead us not into temptation. But deliver us from evil. Amen.

Why, I wonder why the author invented a word using two commonly used root words to translate how Jesus described that bread? It must not have been a familiar concept. What could he have meant?

Epi → On or Above
Ousios → A specific Substance or Matter

What does that have to do with bread? What’s up with this Jesus guy?
 
Oh, well, there you have it. It turns out that the word has been used. Once. By Jesus, no less! Let’s look at the verse.

Why, I wonder why the author invented a word using two commonly used root words to translate how Jesus described that bread? It must not have been a familiar concept. What could he have meant?

Epi → On or Above
Ousios → A specific Substance or Matter

What does that have to do with bread? What’s up with this Jesus guy?
The ***Concise Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament ***recently published in 2009 by Frederick William Danker says the word is of uncertain derivation and that the precise meaning is unknown and gives the gloss: **contentment with a limited supply, needed. **
 
What do you think? Why would the author invent a word using commonly used root words to express such a common concept as “sufficient” or “abundant”, both words occuring in other places in scripture?

I would contend that if the author meant to translate what Jesus said as meaning “abundant” or “sufficient”, he would have used the word “abundant” or “sufficient”. Both were commonly used words that everyone was familiar with.

So what does “on-substance bread” or “above-substance bread” mean?
 
What do you think? Why would the author invent a word using commonly used root words to express such a common concept as “sufficient” or “abundant”, both words occuring in other places in scripture?

I would contend that if the author meant to translate what Jesus said as meaning “abundant” or “sufficient”, he would have used the word “abundant” or “sufficient”. Both were commonly used words that everyone was familiar with.

So what does “on-substance bread” or “above-substance bread” mean?
Well, I have looked at two sources, BDAG and the Concise Lexicon. The Concise Lexicon is more recent and in that lexicon it just says that they don’t know the origin of the word. So it is possible that the word did exist but that we don’t have any other examples in our literature.

In that lexicon they rely on the context of those verses in an attempt to understand the sense of the word. That is actually the best way to find the sense of a word and it does make sense. However when a word is only used one or two times it is very difficult to determine its meaning from usage.
 
St. Jerome gave the best translation of επιουσιον by translating it into supersubstantialem. επι= super and ουσιον= substantialem, perfect translation from Greek to Latin. I would translate the word as “substance from above.”
 
St. Jerome gave the best translation of επιουσιον by translating it into supersubstantialem. επι= super and ουσιον= substantialem, perfect translation from Greek to Latin. I would translate the word as “substance from above.”
Did Jerome coin that word in Latin?
 
The Greek prefix “epi” means “on” or “above”.

The great Wiki records the Greek suffix “ousios” as “a specific substance, essence, being, person, or thing”.

If I put those words together to form a word kinda like, for example, “epiousios”, what do you think that would mean? All hypothetically, of course.
BTW, Wiki has an article on the entire word here.
 
Oh, well, there you have it. It turns out that the word has been used. Once. By Jesus, no less! Let’s look at the verse.

Actually, it was not “used” by Jesus. It was either supplied or invented by either Matthew (if he wrote in Greek) or his translator (if, as some say, he wrote in Aramaic). It translates an Aramaic word that Jesus used in that conversation, and unfortunately the word has been lost, because no one was taping the conversation.

DaveBj
 
Scardinoz;5806095:
Oh, well, there you have it. It turns out that the word has
been used. Once. By Jesus, no less! Let’s look at the verse.

Actually, it was not “used” by Jesus. It was either supplied or invented by either Matthew (if he wrote in Greek) or his translator (if, as some say, he wrote in Aramaic). It translates an Aramaic word that Jesus used in that conversation, and unfortunately the word has been lost, because no one was taping the conversation.

DaveBj

Actually we do have the Aramaic Peshitta, which I do hold the position that the Gospel of Matthew is preserved the closest, and the word used is ܣܘܢܩܢܐ swnqn, and it means “need” or “necessity”. I imagine Matthew wrote his Gospel in both Greek and Aramaic or had someone translate it into Greek for him, so επιουσιον is more than likely an inspired translation of it. But that is my position, not universal by any means. Here is an article that I wrote about variant readings that will explain a little deeper. litteralchristianlibrary.wetpaint.com/page/My+Theory+About+Variant+Readings
 
DaveBj;5809001:
Actually we do have the Aramaic Peshitta, which I do hold the position that the Gospel of Matthew is preserved the closest, and the word used is ܣܘܢܩܢܐ
swnqn, and it means “need” or “necessity”. I imagine Matthew wrote his Gospel in both Greek and Aramaic or had someone translate it into Greek for him, so επιουσιον is more than likely an inspired translation of it. But that is my position, not universal by any means. Here is an article that I wrote about variant readings that will explain a little deeper. litteralchristianlibrary.wetpaint.com/page/My+Theory+About+Variant+Readings

You might also consider the Shem Tob, the Hebrew Matthew.
 
COPLAND 3;5809035:
You might also consider the Shem Tob, the Hebrew Matthew.
I’ve looked for an online text of it but I can’t find what I am looking for. Howard’s Hebrew Matthew would be handy, but all I can get is google books and amazon but they have such a limited preview that I can not see Mattew 6:11. If you have a text availble, even a Hebrew text then please let me have it, I will analyze the Hebrew word used.
 
I just checked the Du Tillet Hebrew version of Matthew, and it has תמידי which means permanent or continual. Not that the Hebrew versions are of any major value, more than likely they are medieval translations of another text from Greek or Latin. But it is worth consulting.
 
Dan Parker;5809091:
I’ve looked for an online text of it but I can’t find what I am looking for. Howard’s Hebrew Matthew would be handy, but all I can get is google books and amazon but they have such a limited preview that I can not see Mattew 6:11. If you have a text availble, even a Hebrew text then please let me have it, I will analyze the Hebrew word used.
Look on page 91 of the PDF which is 84 in the document.
 
Dan, thanks, that was very helpful! The Du Tillet reads the same as the Shem Tov.
 
So we have an Aramaic manuscript that predates the Greek manuscripts we have?

As I understand it, scholars on either side of the fence say Matthew had to have been written some time between 35-90 AD.
The Infallible Wiki:
The Old Testament of the Peshitta was translated from the Hebrew, probably in the second century.
The Infallible Wiki:
It is however unarguably the earliest instance we have of the Pauline epistles, James, 1 John and 1 Peter in Syriac (Aramaic).
I only ask because I didn’t see anything about Matthew there.

What I do see is that the Peshitta is a Syriac translation “directly from the Hebrew”.
 
So we have an Aramaic manuscript that predates the Greek manuscripts we have?

As I understand it, scholars on either side of the fence say Matthew had to have been written some time between 35-90 AD.

I only ask because I didn’t see anything about Matthew there.

What I do see is that the Peshitta is a Syriac translation “directly from the Hebrew”.
I think it would be better if we see those quotes in context (from Wikipedia):

The name ‘Peshitta’ was first applied to the standard, common Syriac Bible in the ninth century, when it is called such by Moshe bar Kepha. However, it is clear that the Peshitta had a long and complex history before receiving its name. In fact the Peshitta Old Testament and New Testament are two completely separate works of translation.

The Peshitta Old Testament is the earliest piece of Syriac literature of any length, probably originating in the second century. Whereas the majority of the Early Church relied on the Greek Septuagint as their translation of the Hebrew Old Testament, the Syriac-speaking church used the Peshitta, which was translated from the Hebrew independently of the Septuagint. The Hebrew text that served as a master copy for the translation must have been relatively similar to the Masoretic Text of mediaeval and modern Hebrew Bibles. Although previous studies had suggested that it was translated from Aramaic Targumim, this is now rejected. However, some isolated targumic influences can be seen in the text (especially in the Pentateuch and Books of Chronicles), with the addition of little interpretive asides. The style and quality of translation in the Peshitta Old Testament varies quite widely. Some parts may have been translated by Syriac-speaking Jews before being taken over by the church, while other parts may have been worked on by early Jewish converts to Christianity. As Syriac is the language of Edessa, it is likely that the translation took place in that region. However, Arbela and Adiabene, with its large and influential second-century Jewish population, has also been suggested as the place of origin.

We skip two sentences here…

The origin of the Peshitta New Testament is complicated by the existence of two other Syriac gospel traditions: the Diatessaron and the Old Syriac. It is however unarguably the earliest instance we have of the Pauline epistles, James, 1 John and 1 Peter in Syriac (Aramaic). The earliest Gospel translation into Syriac was probably Tatian’s Diatessaron (‘one through four’). The no longer extant Diatessaron, was a continuous harmony of the four gospels into a single narrative. It, rather than the four separate gospels, became the official Syriac Gospel for a time, and received a beautiful prose commentary by Ephrem the Syrian, which remains the chief witness to its content. However, the Syriac-speaking church was urged to follow the practice of other churches and use the four separate gospels. Theodoret, bishop of Cyrrhus on the Euphrates in upper Syria in 423, sought out and found more than two hundred copies of the Diatessaron, which he ‘collected and put away, and introduced instead of them the Gospels of the four evangelists’.

The early Syriac versions of both Old and New Testament with the four gospels, excluding the Diatessaron, is called the Old Syriac (Vetus Syra) version. There are two fifth-century manuscripts of the Old Syriac separate gospels (the Sinaitic Palimpsest and Curetonian Gospels). These are a comparatively free translation of the Greek text, the so-called ‘Western’ recension of it, and apparently making use of the Diatessaron text for phrasing. The Old Syriac Gospels were probably produced in the third century (although some date it to the early fourth century). The Old Syriac uses the Peshitta Old Testament for Old Testament quotes (and thus is the earliest witness to its existence) in the gospels, even in places where the quote is quite different in the Greek.

The Peshitta version of the four gospels and Acts is thought to be a reworking of Old Syriac material to form a unified version of the scriptures for the Syriac-speaking churches. The name of Rabbula, bishop of Edessa (d. 435) is popularly connected with the production of the Peshitta. However, it is extremely unlikely that he was involved with its production. By the early fifth century, the Peshitta was the standard Bible of the Syriac-speaking churches. Unlike the Greek canon, the Peshitta did not contain the Second Epistle of Peter, the Second Epistle of John, the Third Epistle of John, the Epistle of Jude and the Book of Revelation. However, examination of the earliest extant Peshitta manuscripts shows some variation, including Diatessaric and Old-Syriac features existing long after their supposed replacement. The subsequent divisions of the Syriac-speaking church did not displace the Peshitta as the common scriptures of all groups.
 
The Greek prefix “epi” means “on” or “above”.

The great Wiki records the Greek suffix “ousios” as “a specific substance, essence, being, person, or thing”.

If I put those words together to form a word kinda like, for example, “epiousios”, what do you think that would mean? All hypothetically, of course.
Probably the best way to do this is to first realize that there are numerous words in the New Testament formed by attaching epi to some other word. Strong’s dictionary has all these words grouped together. By reviewing them you can observe how EPI added to all these other words affects the meaning of these words. Get the sense of what EPI does when compounded with other words and then you will be able to understand the word in question.

You can scroll forward and backward to all the other words here:

net.bible.org/strong.php?id=1967

I read the word as indicating the bread is what we exist upon. In other words, we ask God to give us bread that is our existential substance (it becomes what we are when we eat it).
 
St. Jerome gave the best translation of επιουσιον by translating it into supersubstantialem. επι= super and ουσιον= substantialem, perfect translation from Greek to Latin. I would translate the word as “substance from above.”
So, what is this supersubstantial bread from above that Jesus was speaking of?
 
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