If John 6 is speaking of the eucharist, how can non Catholics be saved?

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Duane1966 said:
Can you give five more? You said many, I will be amazed if you even find five. You do realize John uses the Greek phogo and trogo when Jesus talks about eating His flesh. While phogo can be used metaphorically, trogo literally means to gnaw the flesh off the bone, and I believe has never been used metaphorically.
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Why not just deal with the one I posed and then we can move on to other side?
I seem to remember some more quotes by Tertullian where it is quite clear that he takes John 6 literally.
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"TERTULLIAN (c. 155 - 250 A.D.)Likewise, in regard to days of fast, many do not think they should be present at theSACRIFICIALprayers, because their fast would be broken if they were to receiveTHE BODY OF THE LORD…THE BODY OF THE LORD HAVING BEEN RECEIVED AND RESERVED, each point is secured: both the participationIN THE SACRIFICE…*(Prayer 19:1)
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The flesh feeds onTHE BODY AND BLOOD OF CHRIST, so that theSOUL TOOmay fatten on God.(Resurrection of the Dead 8:3)"
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He was not referring to John 6. He was referring to the Eucharist here.
By the way, why does Jesus call His flesh true food and His blood true drink if He was being symbolic? Were Jesus’ miracles actually symbolic?
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What a silly question.
 
Jesus was speaking concretely…Just like God spoke to Moses…in building the Temple, in ordaining His priests, the sanctuary and daily sacrifice, even the robes the priests were to wear, set aside.

Christ fulfilled all. He did not speak symbolically and that is not how the Church has ever approached the Eucharist.

Christ loves all of us…Our pastor told us, however, that we Catholics must realize we are privileged with the grace to believe in the Eucharist. We did nothing to have this faith.

I have been speaking to someone who is not Catholic, and in his faith journey, he is in the depths of the Word of God…the Living Word of God and told me that he has received the bread of life…yet this is solely through the Word. He does not receive the Eucharist in the Church, but he is at that stage of ‘consuming’ the Word of God…and continues forward…I hope into full communion with the Church and Eucharist.
 
LaughingBoy1503 said:
By that logic none of the verses in scripture that talk about the second coming of Christ can be about the second coming of Christ, because that has not happened yet either
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That’s a weird assertion. As nowhere in John 6 does Jesus mention “the Eucharist is going to happen”.
 
Duane1966 said:
By the way, why does Jesus call His flesh true food and His blood true drink if He was being symbolic? Were Jesus’ miracles actually symbolic?
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This is the heart of the Eucharistic message in John 6, Jesus here drives home the point of how He will feed us his real body.
 
KathleenGee said:
I have been speaking to someone who is not Catholic, and in his faith journey, he is in the depths of the Word of God…the Living Word of God and told me that he has received the bread of life…yet this is solely through the Word. He does not receive the Eucharist in the Church, but he is at that stage of ‘consuming’ the Word of God…and continues forward…I hope into full communion with the Church and Eucharist.
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This is exactly how I see it also, the bread of life can be the Word of God in its initial stages.
 
SalusaSecondus said:
The apostles didn’t know what he was talking about, but followed him anyway. We know what he was talking about and follow him anyway. And many of the early church theologians believed John 6 was about faith, not about the Eucharist. In fact it was the majority opinion.
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Why do you say many, and only post one? And then get mad when asked for more quotes?
 
SalusaSecondus said:
That must be where modern Catholics get that John 6 is about the Eucharist, the not written down part.
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If you are specifically looking for the word “eucharist” in John 6, I don’t think you’ll find it. The idea of it is there in the language Jesus uses though.
 
LaughingBoy1503 said:
If God had it in His plans, then who are you to say it did not exist? It did exist.
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It existed in the mind of God, just like all things. It didn’t exist in a way mankind could participate.

That’s like saying The lightbulb existed before 1879 because God planned it.
 
SalusaSecondus said:
Can you tell me how you determined that the RC denomination was correct without using your private interpretations?
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Because it is not a denomination. It is The Church. Historically recorded whether people like it or not and Jesus said the gates of hell will not prevail against it. No such promise is extended to any man made denomination. End of story.
 
SalusaSecondus said:
Can you tell me how you determined that the RC denomination was correct without using your private interpretations?
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Private interpretations, really? Are you against all authority, or just the Catholic Church authority?
 
SalusaSecondus said:
It existed in the mind of God, just like all things. It didn’t exist in a way mankind could participate.

That’s like saying The lightbulb existed before 1879 because God planned it.
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Why couldn’t man participate?
 
SalusaSecondus said:
It existed in the mind of God, just like all things. It didn’t exist in a way mankind could participate.

That’s like saying The lightbulb existed before 1879 because God planned it.
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Yes, maybe he did, do you know for sure?
 
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