A
ActusNonVerbum
Guest
I have been educating myself on how to defend the Faith and I have came to a point that is actually spawned an interesting discussion and I need help getting a clear a decisive understanding of the topic.
Back Story:
The conversation started about John 2:10 verse 12. The wording from the text implies from an English language perspective that Jesus has Brothers. As a friend pointed out it is possible because of a translation issues and possible in Aramaic there is not a word for Cousin. So that is the position I have taken but have not validated his answer myself.
The question of Mary and her purity came based on the above text.
That lead to myself making a statement:
Thanks in Advance.
Back Story:
The conversation started about John 2:10 verse 12. The wording from the text implies from an English language perspective that Jesus has Brothers. As a friend pointed out it is possible because of a translation issues and possible in Aramaic there is not a word for Cousin. So that is the position I have taken but have not validated his answer myself.
The question of Mary and her purity came based on the above text.
That lead to myself making a statement:
Then the follow questions were asked:"That is part of the Mystery associated with the Blessed Mother. We have not think of things solely in the natural, but the super natural in order to understand the value and importance of the relationship of Joseph and Mary. Because of the law at the time Joseph was an important instrument in keeping Mary alive after the Miracle of Immaculate Conception. The text referenced does not mean that Christ had literal brothers. The main point is the very fact that the Lord commands us to honored they Mother and they Father defeats the implied relevance and status of Mary’s purity based on misunderstandings of this passage. We are called to be like Christ. Christ honored his Mother and that is why we have to honor Her now. Regardless of any other speculation HIS is the only point that matters on the topic of Mary. "
Please help me answer these questions.If Marriage is a Sacrament and the Load had commanded that a man an a women are to become one, how would Mary not be in a state of Grace if she obeyed God and consummated her Marriage with Joseph and possible had children? Is it out of the power of God to keep Mary in a state of Grace while participating fully in the Sacrament of Marriage? Would it also be contrary to faith and what is commanded if she did not consummate the Marriage and by that fact alone remove her from Grace?
Thanks in Advance.