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1ke
Guest
Where on earth did you get such an idea?goes full term and is born, does the Church not recognize this child as a “real person” since it was not conceived “right”?
Every person is a “real” person.
Where on earth did you get such an idea?goes full term and is born, does the Church not recognize this child as a “real person” since it was not conceived “right”?
The origin of the child is irrelevant. All children are real persons, including those conceived through immoral means as you describe, or as a result of other sin (ie rape, fornication, etc.). A good result (the child) is not an excuse for a sinful act.Then if a child is conceived outside (from the wife’s egg and the husband’s sperm), the embryo gets implanted in the wife’s womb, goes full term and is born, does the Church not recognize this child as a “real person” since it was not conceived “right”?
Why do we allow infertile/sterile people to get married?
Yet the world population keeps growing, even though infertile or sterile people get married, even if not in the Church.
It’s because these people are selfish and refuse to let the world grow.
What is the purpose without Procreation. Didn’t God say to be fruiful and multiply?
JESUS I TRUST IN YOU
jr
Did God say “Those that are impotent must not raise the abandoned children of others, and that these impotent must not pretend to be mother and father, lest they burn in Hell.”It’s because these people are selfish and refuse to let the world grow.
What is the purpose without Procreation. Didn’t God say to be fruiful and multiply?
JESUS I TRUST IN YOU
jr
Yes but when semen is injected you do the exact opposite of what couples who contracept do. You separate the unitive meaning of sex from the procreative meaning of sex. Contraception just takes advantage of the unitive meaning of sex, while injecting semen solely takes advantage of the procreative meaning of sex. Both are distortions and the Church would be inconsistent if it only denied contraception. The fact is these things have been thought out. Once you establish that every sexual act must be both unitive and procreative everything else follows from that.I have a feeling the church is going to have a lot of problems with these fertility treatments in the future explaining to the children that came to be because of these treatments. It will be thorny.
My hubby and I had fertility treatments. The first steps of taking hormones did not work and we knew in vitro would not be allowed (we didn’t want any excess eggs destroyed) but at one point the fertility doctor did take my hubby’s sperm and inject it into me to be sure it was getting to the right place. I did not conceive but now I learn that would not be allowed either.
I know technology is growing faster than the church can keep up at times. The priests on the radio have said that and many of these things need to be studied further.
It seems to me the first and the last contradict each other a bit. Though I am reticent to use the word ‘stupid’, especially with well trained and intelligent people even IF IMHO they are drawing incorrect conclusions, I too disagree with what I percieve is the end here.catholicdoors.com/misc/marriage/canonlaw.htm
CHAPTER III: INDIVIDUAL DIRIMENT IMPEDIMENTS (Code of canon Law, 1983)
Canon 1084.1 Antecedent and perpetual impotence to have sexual intercourse, whether on the part of the man or on that of the woman, whether absolute or relative, by its very nature invalidates marriage.
In *Casti Connubii *(II, 59), 1930, Pope Pius XI teaches on timing, or infertile impediments within marriage:
“Nor are those considered as acting against nature who in the married state use their right in the proper manner although on account of natural reasons either of time or of certain defects, new life cannot be brought forth. For in matrimony as well as in the use of the matrimonial rights there are also secondary ends, such as mutual aid, the cultivating of mutual love, and the quieting of concupiscence which husband and wife are not forbidden to consider so long as they are subordinated to the primary end and so long as the intrinsic nature of the act is preserved.”
Correct, a person with antecedent perpetual impotence cannot contract a valid marriage.Not only that, the wording above says it ‘invalidates marriage.’ This could be taken to mean you are not capable of a valid marriage, or that your current valid marriage is now invalidated.
No, that is not the case. The basis of the Church’s teaching re:contraception has nothing to do with being “unnatural”. Certainly one may undergo treatment to correct the defect.What about surgical appliances that would assist you in intercourse - are they ‘unnatural’ so that they are compared to for instance birth control for a woman and not approved for use by the church?
It’s not clear that you do understand it entirely, so can you articulate what disturbs you?I am sadly disturbed by this teaching (assuming I understand any of it correctly).
If artificial insemination is immoral, does that mean that Jesus was conceived in an immoral manner? Or does it mean that God the Father inseminate Mary through natural means? It has to be asked.Please do not put words in my mouth. I did not say medical technology is immoral. I said artificial insemination is immoral.
Abu: “Canon 1084.1 Antecedent and perpetual impotence to have sexual intercourse, whether on the part of the man or on that of the woman, whether absolute or relative, by its very nature invalidates marriage.”
Abu: “In Casti Connubii (II, 59), `1930, Pope Pius XI, ‘….Nor are those considered as acting against nature who in the married state use their right in the proper manner….so long as the intrinsic nature of the act is preserved.’ ”
No. The intrinsic nature of the act is impossible if real impotence exists.DaveScott, #48
It seems to me the first and the last contradict each other a bit.
The sensible procedure when one is so confused and distrustful of the Magisterium of Christ’s Church is to seek the advice of a competent parish priest, and/or pose the doubts and questions to the Eternal Word Television Network (EWTN) which has many competent (priests and lay) and whose previous available answers may well have clarified all doubt in many areas.While I love my church, I am at times either confused (certainly) but other times in complete disagreement with the Magisterium. I think the Church qualifying who is capable of expressing God’s love in certain ways is beyond what God intends for us. I am sadly disturbed by this teaching (assuming I understand any of it correctly).
haha that’s like asking how God can be three person’s in one and expecting to be able to ever get anywhere close to actually understanding itIf artificial insemination is immoral, does that mean that Jesus was conceived in an immoral manner? Or does it mean that God the Father inseminate Mary through natural means? It has to be asked.
this indicates to me a total lack of understanding of the Incarnation.If artificial insemination is immoral, does that mean that Jesus was conceived in an immoral manner? Or does it mean that God the Father inseminate Mary through natural means? It has to be asked.
You’ve claimed I’m ignorant on the subject, so enlighten me. I asked a question which I believe follows naturally from the conversation.this indicates to me a total lack of understanding of the Incarnation.
Please give a reasoned explanation of why it would mean either of those two things? It does not.
I do not understand your reasoning, please give an explanation of how you believe either of those things to be true.You’ve claimed I’m ignorant on the subject, so enlighten me. I asked a question which I believe follows naturally from the conversation.
Also, how does belittling me do you any good? Are we not here to ‘reason together’?
catholicdoors.com/misc/marriage/canonlaw.htm
CHAPTER III: INDIVIDUAL DIRIMENT IMPEDIMENTS (Code of canon Law, 1983)
Canon 1084.1 Antecedent and perpetual impotence to have sexual intercourse, whether on the part of the man or on that of the woman, whether absolute or relative, by its very nature invalidates marriage.
Canon 1084.2 If the impediment of impotence is doubtful, whether the doubt be one of law or one of fact, the marriage is not to be prevented nor, while the doubt persists, is it to be declared null.
Canon 1084.3 Without prejudice to the provisions of canon 1098, sterility neither forbids nor invalidates a marriage.
In *Casti Connubii *(II, 59), 1930, Pope Pius XI teaches on timing, or infertile impediments within marriage:
“Nor are those considered as acting against nature who in the married state use their right in the proper manner although on account of natural reasons either of time or of certain defects, new life cannot be brought forth. For in matrimony as well as in the use of the matrimonial rights there are also secondary ends, such as mutual aid, the cultivating of mutual love, and the quieting of concupiscence which husband and wife are not forbidden to consider so long as they are subordinated to the primary end and so long as the intrinsic nature of the act is preserved.”
…Uh, either you didn’t read the post just before this embarrassing comment or you really ARE lost…This whole thing is ridiculous.
And they wonder why people are bailing out of the CC left and right because of all these stupid (yes, I said “stupid”) rules.
If two (hetero) people are in love they should be allowed to get married. Period. Even if they cannot procreate, at least they can be an example to the rest of the world on the sanctity of marriage.