Fidelia, and others,
I thank you for the charity and kindness displayed in what can often be a contentious discussion. I do understand the claims of the arguments made (and I appreciate the clarification of Roman doctrine via the papal encyclical, though I did not realize this rose to the rank of infallible pronouncement.) Perhaps I can better phrase my confusion this way.
Contraception (non-abortive) is a human intervention designed and implemented to prevent conception while retaining the sexual congress. Natural Family Planning is a human intervention, designed and implemented to prevent conception while retaining the sexual congress. But there’s no human intervention. There is no deliberate act rendering the sex to be sterile. In these ways, they are very similar, in that the human actors are preventing, through their intentionality, conception while continuing to have sexual relations. Infertile periods of the cycle are not the result of human intervention; they are the result of God’s design. To have sex in those periods is completely licit. Just like a couple could use an IUD to forever preclude conception, An IUD is wrong because it kills an embryo, though I think you know that. they could also forever use NFP to preclude conception No, it is not permitted to refuse to ever conceive. In theory, yes it could probably be done, but again, it is achieved by simply using the way God created the reproductive system, it’s not human intervention. Why is one intentional prevention of conception sinful, when the other is not? Because it’s in what is being done or not being done.
Where my issue arises, is that it’s either improper to intentionally prevent conception during sexual activity, or it is not. While the means themselves are not without relative value (some are certainly preferable to others,) sin is a matter primarily of the heart and the will. Perhaps another way of phrasing the question would be, why would intentionally preventing conception during sex be licit via NFP, while it would be illicit through any other means? What makes exercising the will to have sexual relations while intentionally precluding conception acceptible in some circumstances, but not in others?
Again, you continue to make the mistake of thinking of NFP as “Catholic contraception.” You (we all) need to avoid this mentality. NFP is not “Catholic contraception” any more than a decree of nullity is a “Catholic divorce.”
We also need to avoid the secular mentality that children are not to be desired in marriage. This is exactly what I was trying to point out in my first post in this thread.
Again, I understand that from an authority perspective, Roman Catholics are bound to do and think as they are directed through their structures. However, the question is more theological and philosophical, touching upon whether the teaching itself is rationally congruent. If the teaching wasn’t rational, it wouldn’t be Church teaching. God is rational. It is we who lack understanding, not His Church. When we don’t understand, it is for us to educate ourselves and try to understand. I see that you are asking questions in order to aid your understanding, which is good. Where I find issue, is how you imply that there may be some error in Church teaching, rather than a shortcoming in human ability to understand it.
Blessings to you all.
(P.S., for the record once again, I still think NFP is the best of all possible solutions.) I see.