Hello,
My difficulty with Matthew 26:39 is that Jesus, knowing that He would die for us as He had announced several times, still asks to the Father “If possible, let this cup pass from me”.
I am well aware of the fact that Jesus was experiencing fear, but nevertheless, He repeated He came to give His life.
How do you see this? Thank you
D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:
Ver. 39. Going a little further. St. Luke says, about a stone’s cast, kneeling down; or as here in Matthew, prostrating himself. He did both. — Father, if it is possible. Which is the same, says St. Augustine, as if he said, if thou wilt, let this cup of sufferings pass from me. — Nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt. He that was God and man, had both a divine and a human will. He was pleased to let us know what he naturally feared, as man, and in the sensitive part of his soul; yet shews his human will had nothing contrary to his divine will, by presently adding, but not my will, but thine be done. Here, as related by St. Luke, followed his bloody sweat. (Luke xxii. 43[44?].) (Witham) — These words are a source of instruction for all Christians. These words inflame the breasts of confessors; the same also crown the fortitude of the martyrs. For, who could overcome the hatred of the world, the assaults of temptations, and the terrors of persecutors, unless Christ in all, and for all, had said to his eternal Father: Nevertheless, not as I will, but as thou willest. Let all the children of the Church then understand well these words, that when calamities violently beat upon us, we may with resignation exclaim: nevertheless, not as I will, but, &c. (St. Leo the great)