If someone says the Eucharist is not valid in the NO

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I understand that maybe it’s better to simply not argue this at all… but sometimes their arguments make me doubt too, so it would be good to know the counter-argument 🙂 for example, does anyone know if the Mass is still considered a Sacrifice, and how is this seem in the Novus Ordo?
 
I understand that maybe it’s better to simply not argue this at all… but sometimes their arguments make me doubt too, so it would be good to know the counter-argument 🙂 for example, does anyone know if the Mass is still considered a Sacrifice, and how is this seem in the Novus Ordo?
From the Roman Canon (EP1)
We come to your, Father, with praise and thanksgiving, through Jesus Christ your Son. Through him we ask you to accept and bless + these gifts we offer you in sacrifice. We offer them for your holy catholic Church, watch over it, Lord, and guide it; grant it peace and unity throughout the world. We offer them for {Benedict} our Pope, for {name of Bishop in local diocese} our bishop, and for all who hold and teach the catholic faith that comes to us from the apostles.
Yes- the OF is considered a sacrifice, why would you think it is not? :confused:

As far as having doubts, why are you doubting what the Chruch teaches and not what some of these people you are talking to are saying? 🤷

I am starting to think, Monica, that you need to spend a lot less time on the internet, and a lot more time reading the Catechism of the Catholic Church. That is where you will find all the answers you seek.
 
The Pope celebrates the Ordinary Form. He specifically has written both forms are valid expressions of the same Rite.

Case closed.
 
…how do you reply? I prefer the traditional Mass and I disagree with some changes in the Novus Ordo (like removing altar rails, etc) - and the TLM seems more reverent to me… but I still consider the Novus Ordo to be valid and to have a valid Eucharist. If another traditionalist person tells you that the NO doesn’t have the Eucharist, - what do you say, what reasons would you give that it is valid?
Since the Latin EP1 is almost identical to the EF Canon, I don’t know how one can logically or objectively claim that the “NO” (as in ALL “NO”) is invalid.

But to put things into better prespective there was a pre-Vatican II rule that prohibited Catholics from attending a non-Catholic service of any kind. During the 60’s they changed enough in the Mass (facing the people, vernacular in the canon, etc) that made many Catholics started seeing the Mass as Protestant with so many canons and nationalized languages; with this they also started doubting the validity of the Mass. All this was done BEFORE the “NO” was promulgated, but since the “NO” simply continued to look like a non-Catholic service, the feelings regarding the vernacular, facing the people, etc. didn’t change. At least these were my observations.
 
From the Roman Canon (EP1)

Yes- the OF is considered a sacrifice, why would you think it is not? :confused:

As far as having doubts, why are you doubting what the Chruch teaches and not what some of these people you are talking to are saying? 🤷

I am starting to think, Monica, that you need to spend a lot less time on the internet, and a lot more time reading the Catechism of the Catholic Church. That is where you will find all the answers you seek.
Monica, I agree with the above. It seems you are questioning the teaching authority of the Magisterium if you feel a need to argue with people who declare the Eurcharist not valid in the NO.

Read the Catechism and advise others to do like wise.
People can chose to be in unity with Rome or not.
 
I understand that maybe it’s better to simply not argue this at all… but sometimes their arguments make me doubt too, so it would be good to know the counter-argument 🙂 for example, does anyone know if the Mass is still considered a Sacrifice, and how is this seem in the Novus Ordo?
I don’t know how to answer this but it does beg the question: do all those who doubt that the Mass is a Sacrifice or that transubstantiation has occured also doubt the validity of the “NO,” even if they attend a weekly “NO”?
 
From the Roman Canon (EP1)

Yes- the OF is considered a sacrifice, why would you think it is not? :confused:
Because in the past I’ve read articles that say that in the OF, the priest is not seen as one who offers the Sacrifice. Maybe it’s confusing because it says “we”, whereas technically speaking we don’t offer the Sacrifice, the priest does. Maybe it’s referring to us joining in his prayers which is fine, since the Church has approved the wording.
As far as having doubts, why are you doubting what the Chruch teaches and not what some of these people you are talking to are saying? 🤷
I am starting to think, Monica, that you need to spend a lot less time on the internet, and a lot more time reading the Catechism of the Catholic Church. That is where you will find all the answers you seek.
I do read the Catechism and other literature. I just asked here what counter-argument I could use for these points 🤷 that is all. Trying to figure things out is not the same as doubting.
Since the Latin EP1 is almost identical to the EF Canon, I don’t know how one can logically or objectively claim that the “NO” (as in ALL “NO”) is invalid.

But to put things into better prespective there was a pre-Vatican II rule that prohibited Catholics from attending a non-Catholic service of any kind. During the 60’s they changed enough in the Mass (facing the people, vernacular in the canon, etc) that made many Catholics started seeing the Mass as Protestant with so many canons and nationalized languages; with this they also started doubting the validity of the Mass. All this was done BEFORE the “NO” was promulgated, but since the “NO” simply continued to look like a non-Catholic service, the feelings regarding the vernacular, facing the people, etc. didn’t change. At least these were my observations.
that makes sense… honestly I don’t know enough about that argument that they use. I just read what Archbishop Lefebvre etc said. (I read this a long time ago, not recently).
Monica, I agree with the above. It seems you are questioning the teaching authority of the Magisterium if you feel a need to argue with people who declare the Eurcharist not valid in the NO.

Read the Catechism and advise others to do like wise.
People can chose to be in unity with Rome or not.
I am questioning the Church by wanting to defend its teachings? :confused: I didn’t say I disbelieved the teachings, but that since I don’t know enough theology, sometimes what people tell me makes me confused.
The Pope celebrates the Ordinary Form. He specifically has written both forms are valid expressions of the same Rite.

Case closed.
Sadly if you’re speaking to a sedevacantist they won’t agree though. I was hoping to come up with an argument that works from their own perspective also.
 
=Monica4316;8410088]Thank you for the replies…
well I do see the TLM as being more reverent, but I don’t want to argue that here. 🙂
I am wondering though, what particular arguments could I use to defend the position that the Eucharist is valid in the NO? For example, a while ago I heard about a Eucharistic miracle that happened, and the Eucharist was consecrated in the NO Mass. Also, there is the doctrine that as long as a validly ordained priest says the Consecration, transubstantiation occurs.
However, some people say that there is no transubstantiation because the Novus Ordo does not emphasize the Mass as Sacrifice. My question is, IS it still believed that the Mass is a sacrifice? that is how I’ve always seen it…
  1. The Bible say’s it is: mt. 26; Mk. 14, Lk. 22. John 6, and ist.Cor. 11
  2. The eary church believed and praticed it as being the Real presence [READ 1 Cor.11:26-29]
  3. The Eary Fathers taught it:
    St. Ignatius became the third bishop of Antioch, succeeding St. Evodius, who was the immediate successor of St. Peter. He heard St. John preach when he was a boy and knew St. Polycarp, Bishop of Smyrna. Seven of his letters written to various Christian communities have been preserved. Eventually, he received the martyr’s crown as he was thrown to wild beasts in the arena.
“Consider how contrary to the mind of God are the heterodox in regard to the grace of God which has come to us. They have no regard for charity, none for the widow, the orphan, the oppressed, none for the man in prison, the hungry or the thirsty. They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they do not admit that the Eucharist is the flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ, the flesh which suffered for our sins and which the Father, in His graciousness, raised from the dead.”
“Letter to the Smyrnaeans”, paragraph 6. circa 80-110 A.D

ST. AMBROSE OF MILAN


“You perhaps say: ‘My bread is usual.’ But the bread is bread before the words of the sacraments; when consecration has been added, from bread it becomes the flesh of Christ. So let us confirm this, how it is possible that what is bread is the body of Christ. By what words, then, is the consecration and by whose expressions? By those of the Lord Jesus. For all the rest that are said in the preceding are said by the priest: praise to God, prayer is offered, there is a petition for the people, for kings, for the rest. When it comes to performing a venerable sacrament, then the priest uses not his own expressions, but he uses the expressions of Christ. Thus the expression of Christ performs this sacrament.” The Sacraments" Book 4, Ch.4:14. Bishop of Milan from 374 to 397

Valid Matter: unleavened bread and wine
Vaild words [the same in the LM and OF] except for the language
Valid Priest in both forms

THAT MAKES IT A VALID SACRAMENT and the REAL PRESENCE in both.👍

God Bless,
Pat
 
Sadly if you’re speaking to a sedevacantist they won’t agree though. I was hoping to come up with an argument that works from their own perspective also.
IMHO, this is your problem.
Based on many of your posts that I have read here at CAF- these are the last people you should be having conversations with, especially about theology!
All you need to know is in the catechism- that’s the “rulebook”. 😉
That is the only argument that is needed.
As it has been said a couple of times already- it is up to the people who make these ridiculous claims to prove them.
All you need is the “rulebook”- then you have the MAGISTERIUM on your side-
AND THAT’S WHERE THE TRUTH, THE WHOLE TRUTH AND NOTHING BUT THE TRUTH LIES- NO WHERE ELSE!!!
 
Actually it boils down to authority issue.

Simply put, if the Magisterium is wrong in this regard, then the Church is never been the Church as herself proclaim. Thus the Catholic Church is simply a diabolical entity.

You cannot have both, saying the Catholic Church is what she call herself but at the same time arguing the Magisterium is in error in term of faith and moral.
 
Thank you for the replies…

well I do see the TLM as being more reverent, but I don’t want to argue that here. 🙂

I am wondering though, what particular arguments could I use to defend the position that the Eucharist is valid in the NO? For example, a while ago I heard about a Eucharistic miracle that happened, and the Eucharist was consecrated in the NO Mass. Also, there is the doctrine that as long as a validly ordained priest says the Consecration, transubstantiation occurs.

However, some people say that there is no transubstantiation because the Novus Ordo does not emphasize the Mass as Sacrifice. My question is, IS it still believed that the Mass is a sacrifice? that is how I’ve always seen it…

thanks! 🙂
All that is required for validity is a validly ordained priest, even if he’s not Catholic. The words of consecration, except in one of the rites, which does not require them; but that does not apply here. And the intent to consecrate.

Transubstantiation is not dependent on the reverence of the priest or the congregation, nor on the holiness of either priest or congregation. Even if the priest has doubts, the consecration is valid if he has matter and form.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
 
Now that the words of consecration are going to be translated correctly in the new translation of the Missal into English (“Pro Multis” = “for many,” not “for all”), hopefully we’ll be hearing less of these people saying the N.O. is invalid.
 
All that is required for validity is a validly ordained priest, even if he’s not Catholic. The words of consecration, except in one of the rites, which does not require them; but that does not apply here. And the intent to consecrate.
Forgive my ignorance here, please. I am confused. What do you mean when you say, “even if he’s not Catholic.” Do you mean if a non-Catholic priest (i.e., a validly ordained Orthodox priest) said the NO Mass with the words of consecration and the intent to consecrate that there would, in fact, be a valid Eucharist? I had thought the priest has to be a part of the rite (within Catholicism) or have bi-ritual faculties in order to celebrate the liturgy and consecrate the Eucharist within a given rite. Can a NO Mass and consecration even be done with an Orthodox priest?
 
If you are talking to sedevacantists, it’s a waste of time to try to argue with them. Simply pray for them, and don’t allow them to plant seeds of doubt. The Church is indefectible. Therefore, it is impossible for it to promulgate invalid forms of the Sacraments. Hope this helps.
 
All that is required for validity is a validly ordained priest, even if he’s not Catholic. The words of consecration, except in one of the rites, which does not require them; but that does not apply here. And the intent to consecrate.

Transubstantiation is not dependent on the reverence of the priest or the congregation, nor on the holiness of either priest or congregation. Even if the priest has doubts, the consecration is valid if he has matter and form.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
thanks for the information Br JR 🙂 Many sedevacantists seem to believe that some priests who celebrate the OF do not intend to consecrate. Although such priests might potentially be out there, I don’t think I have never met such a priest, and probably their number is exaggerated in these arguments.

God bless!
 
Now that the words of consecration are going to be translated correctly in the new translation of the Missal into English (“Pro Multis” = “for many,” not “for all”), hopefully we’ll be hearing less of these people saying the N.O. is invalid.
That was only part of it. Here were the other reasons for doubting the all-English canon as it was in the 60’s.

the-pope.com/qtv.html
 
I would direct any person who doubts the form of Novus Ordo sacraments to the writings of Michael Davies, who has been praised by Pope Benedict, and often quoted by Abp. Marcel Lefebvre.

As I understand the question, doubts about valid sacraments from any SSPX position are always in regard to matter or intention. Intention isn’t very hard. Heretics can validly baptize and they can validly ordain, consecrate, and confirm if they “intend to to do what the Church does” using the correct form and matter. Except for a funeral, wedding, or vacation, I go exclusively to SSPX liturgies. I will argue vigorously and with conviction with anyone who says that the liturgical forms of Novus Ordo Sacraments are invalid. I could not fail to genuflect before the Blessed Sacrament in any Catholic Church or fail to offer due respect for any priest ordained according to the new ordinal.
 
Anyone who’s posted here for some time should already know that the counter-argument cannot be posted, because it’s either explicitly or implicitly (i.e. criticism of Vatican II) against the rules, and the poster in question will be given an infraction. So, posting the topic here ensures that only a pro-NO/Vatican II answer will be given… so take from that what you will.

God bless!

P.S. - My post reflects the experience I’ve had here on this forum (I have several infractions to my credit).
 
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