M
MH84
Guest
I was wondering about this, and this was flared up by this thread here: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=3603412.
Especially this part by one poster:
And if that is the case, that would mean the Pope made a mistake in regards to the faith; declaring on behalf of the Church and God that someone was saint, and has gone straight to Heaven. That means the Pope was not infallible. Am I wrong with this assumption?
Especially this part by one poster:
Since there was no canonisation process until recent times, does that mean there was a chance that the Pope declared someone a saint previously without looking into the matter properly, and may have been under pressure to do so.The faithful, through the Magesterium of the Church will continue, and have every right, to canonize by popular acclaim men and women of outstanding holiness. This is the way it has always happened. The “popular acclaim” for the late Pontiff, which was so evident at his death and particularly at his funeral, was a clear indication of the widespread belief that John Paul II was a model of Christian virtue.
And if that is the case, that would mean the Pope made a mistake in regards to the faith; declaring on behalf of the Church and God that someone was saint, and has gone straight to Heaven. That means the Pope was not infallible. Am I wrong with this assumption?