Questioner,
The translation you have used for Matthew 22:30 uses the word “people” in lieu of the word “they”, but the translator would have had to be at the scene where Jesus spoke the words, and would have had to ask for clarification as to what Jesus meant, because when He used an indefinite pronoun the logical assumption would be that He was referring to the brothers, since the brothers were the subject of the question.
Ok, fair enough. In some translations the word “they” is used. Let us analyze this further
Matthew 22:30 NRSV 30For in the resurrection they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels[*](javascript:void(0)

in heaven.
So, the Sadducees, who do not believe in the Resurrection, asked Jesus who’s wife the woman who married 6 brothers would be since her husbands kept dying (sounds rather suspicious if you ask me

). In explaining he says the verse above. Now…even if the word “they” were put in place of “people” this does not change what he said. When he says “they”, who specifically will not be given in marraige? The brothers? The wife? All of them? And if they will become angels and the rest gods, why them and not us? They did not appear to be doing anything sinful. It was the custom at the time that when a man died and his wife is childless it was his brother’s duty to take her in as his wife, literally. So there was nothing what so ever wrong with what the brothers and wife did. In fact it was part of the Law. So there would be no reason to condemn them.
Now if you are saying Jesus was talking to the Sadducees then it leaves a problem. He didn’t use the word “you”. As such if when he said “they” he meant “you” the last part would make little sense, and would make Christ sound incoherent. The only way you can reconcile this is saying that he said angels because he meant the Pharisees would be angels. Since this is not true as man cannot be angels then it means he is saying it to please them and he is a liar or does not know what he is talking about.
But the entire arguement over this verse is pointless. As a Mormon who argues that Revelations says humans will become gods (am i correct in this?) it would be beneficial for you and I to follow many of the great apologists of the past and just agree that this passage does not mean that anyone will literally be transformed into an angel, but that this verse deals specifically with the example of marriage and when it says we will be like angels it means we will not get married in heaven, be married (though this may be problematic for you) nor give into marriage like the angels who do not.
The passage in Luke is more generalized (Luke 20:34-36), but the passage is unclear since all humankind will be resurrected as taught by Paul, and verse 35 implies only the “worthy” will be resurrected.
Luke 20:34-36
34 Jesus said to them, ‘Those who belong to this age marry and are given in marriage; but those who are considered
worthy of a place in that age
and in the resurrectionIndeed they cannot die any more, because they are like angels and are children of God, being children of the resurrection. from the dead neither marry nor are given in marriage. 3536
Well first of all, i’m surprised. Here I am working with Matthew and you find a better verse explaining what I was trying to say all along. Instead of going “ohhhh, ok so I was wrong” you point to another part of the verse you do not understand and then scrap the whole thing because “it is unclear”. That my friend (if you did it on purpose, which i doubt from you since you seem pretty honest) is dishonest. The main point of that verse is that no one will marry nor will be given into marraige, and since marraige ends in death, no one will be married (this last point may differ between us). Once again, they are like angels in that there will be no marraige nor giving into marriage.
However, since you brought up the issue of the resurrection, we can clear it up. First, pay attention to where the word “and” is used. As "and"s and "or"s are interchangable sometimes in english today, it was not so it ancient times. And meant And and Or meant Or and where they were placed in writing or speech changed the meaning of entire sentences, and could be disasterous when declaring doctrine if put in the wrong places. Second notice the use of words. Jesus says, “those worthy of a place in that age”, then says “and in the resurrection”. If being worthy of a place in that age meant the resurrection specifically then he would have repeated himself twice for no particular reason. Unless (and more likely so) that when he said “worthy of a place in that age” he meant worthy of being with him in the New Kingdom, and when he said “and in the resurrection” he meant everyone else who is raised.
I don’t find “problematic” implications as you have said. What does a “joint throne” mean to you? What will a human who is like Jesus do in heaven (I’m honestly curious what you believe they will be doing forever)? How will he or she do those things from a joint throne, if that does not imply some kind of leadership role in heaven?
First i am curious as two where this “joint throne” speech is comming from and why that would imply that we would become gods. If anything it means to me equal, which is impossible as no one can be equal with God. You would have to show me the verse so i could read it in context. Second, we will live in light and happiness with Christ forever. What this means i will not even dare to speculate at, but we will not get bored, that i know the least (or hope the least

). No matter what I say about it my explaination will pale in comparison to the gloriousness of the New Kingdom. Third, you can do all those things without being some sort of leader. In fact, we are all called to be slaves of Christ. (Ephesians 6:6). The need to have some sort of leadership role in the New Kingdom where God will be our perfect leader anyway boarders on the sin of pride to me.