Letters being written to the Bishop of Rome do not prove any case in support of some type of Roman bishop supremacy.
But when there is a council held by “many bishops” and they come out of there with a teaching and afterwards send a letter to the Bishop of Rome, then we kind of have a different story, don’t we?
The case you are making is: All Bishops are equal.
The case I am making is: All Bishops have authority and power but there is a distinction of this authority and power and therefore not ALL Bishops are equal.
What we see happening with regards to the letters is: There is a council being held with many bishops. Council is done. A letter gets sent to the Bishop of Rome by St. Cyprian saying:
“And lest perchance the number of bishops in Africa should seem
unsatisfactory,
we also wrote to Rome, to Cornelius our colleague, concerning this thing, who himself also holding a council with very many bishops, concurred in the same opinion as we had held, with equal gravity and wholesome moderation.”
(if you’d like the context, go to
post #92)
So question is: If ALL Bishops are equal, then why would a council with many Bishops possibly seem “unsatisfactory” that St. Cyprian would have to send a letter to the Pope? Please deal directly with this question without doing any dances.
Rome had a position of high esteem within the Church. Apart from the fact that the city was the first capital of the Empire, the See was founded by both Peter and Paul. This honor was given not because of the ‘primacy’ of Peter, but on the position of both Peter and Paul. This was the accepted position, even in the west.
Says you.
Let’s see what a Historian has to say:
"The theory of [Pope] Stephen, that kindled his contemporaries to such utter exasperation, was rather that the Church was a monarchy, **a congeries indeed of bishoprics but all of them subject to the superior authority of the one bishop who sat upon the throne of the prince of the apostles [Peter]. The Roman See, as distinct from the Roman church, was and sought to be predominant, not **for its situation or other wordly advantes, not even for its treasure of doctrine, bequeathed by its two founders, but, primarily and fundamentally, because its bishop was heir in his own person to the unique prerogative conferred upon Peter. To Peter had been granted a primacy among the apostles, so to the Roman bishop was assigned a leadership over the bishops…The Arians, who had ousted Athanasius from Alexandria, offered to submit the case to [Pope] Julius for his judgment. Athanasius himself and other orthodox refugees from eastern sees went directly to Rome as to a court of appeal…
and…
“At the general Council of Sardica [343 AD]…the orthodox Easterners and Westerners stayed behind to issue another, in which they claimed for the Roman bishop an appellate jurisdiction over all the Church in honor of ‘the memory of Peter, the apostle.’…[by the time of Pope Damasus]…there can be no doubt that large numbers of eastern Christians had by this time become convinced of the genuine superiority of the Roman See in faith and religious insight. The eastern emperor Theodosius published an edict requiring his subjects to accept the doctrine which Peter had committed to the Romans…
it was the trustworthy authority of Peter to which the East paid homage in the fourth century, not the wealth nor the power of Rome…From the time when Eleutherus was asked to condemn the Montanists, through the period when Callistus, Stephen and Dionysius revised and interpreted dogma, down to the days when the Nicene creed was defended on the ground of its Roman origin and Liberius and Damasus endorsed or rejected eastern declarations of faith according as they did or did not measure up to their own standards, the Roman bishops asserted their right to speak for the tradition of Peter.” (Shotwell/Loomis, page 217-228)
I wish people would actually take the time to read my posts before replying. Also, even if we assume that your statement is true regarding the honor given to the See of Rome and not the Pope, we can conclude that there are two reasons why there is an honor:
1.) Because Rome was the center of the world.
2.) Because Peter went to Rome.
Perhaps, we can also add that the reason why Peter went to Rome was BECAUSE Rome was the center of the world. It would only make sense that he would go there since he believed to be the leader of the Apostles.
I don’t see why we would need to have an either/or here. I think they go well together (assuming your argument is correct).