If there was no NT Scripture, why is this reffered to as, "Scripture?"

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adstrinity

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“Let the presbyters [priests] who rule well be considered worthy of double honor, especially those who labor in preaching and teaching; for the Scripture says, ‘You shall not muzzle an ox when it is treading out the grain,’ and, ‘The laborer deserves his wages’” (1 Tim. 5:17–18; cf. Matt. 10:10; Luke 10:7).

I got this from, catholic.com/library/Anti_Catholic_Whoppers.asp Is this faulty translation? Is this St. Paul being presumptuous? Was this then added later? St. Paul’s letters were written before the Gospels, so, how could this be?
 
I’m pretty sure that, when St. Paul refers to “Scripture” he means the Old Testament.

'You shall not muzzle an ox when it is treading out the grain’ is from Deuteronomy 25:4.

‘The laborer deserves his wages’ may be a paraphrase of Leviticus 19:13, Deuteronomy 24:15, Tobit 5:14, or Sirach 34:22 which talk about not withholding a labor’s wages.
 
I’m pretty sure that, when St. Paul refers to “Scripture” he means the Old Testament.

'You shall not muzzle an ox when it is treading out the grain’ is from Deuteronomy 25:4.

‘The laborer deserves his wages’ may be a paraphrase of Leviticus 19:13, Deuteronomy 24:15, Tobit 5:14, or Sirach 34:22 which talk about not withholding a labor’s wages.
Ta muchly! I knew there had to be a logical reason!
 
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