C
CompSciGuy
Guest
I don’t think that the church is committed simply to the idea that all sex has to be able to produce children. It teaches that marital commitment has to be between one man and one woman, for a lifetime. The act of sexual intercourse must be ordered toward procreation even if for health reasons it is not possible to procreate. In the case of an elderly couple, the marital act is ordered toward procreation even though the man’s sperm count is probably not sufficient and the woman’s uterus is probably rendered ineffective through menopause. In the case of gay marriage, the sexual act is not ordered toward procreation in any way shape or form whatsoever. The benefits of marriage are intended to lay the groundwork for the creation of a family (which is the building block of society). Gay marriage serves no ultimate purpose in this equation.“No heterosexuals who are unable to procreate may marry. All heterosexuals who do marry must sign a contract promising to procreate. If any married heterosexual couple is subsequently found to be unable to procreate, their marriage is summarily dissolved. If any married heterosexual couple has not procreated by the time of the woman’s menopause, they are in breach of their marital contract as a matter of law, and their marriage is dissolved, with additional penalties for breach of contract.”
That law would demonstrate your commitment to the proposition that marriage is most fundamentally about intercourse-derived children. Otherwise, how can you avoid the perception that your position is not a principled one, because it isn’t applicable to gay and straight alike?