P
PassingThru
Guest
I just saw you posting on a thread about the gay couple in Texas who can NOT get a divorce due to Texas law. There is one simple example right there.I presume you meant it the other way around right?
And what do they not have the right to do because of the distinction?
Now, multiply out all the inter-state problems alone that can arise from archaic state laws on gay marriage, and you get the idea. But your already know this. Quit playing possum.
Now, if all 50 states got their act together, defined civil unions as equal in all legal spheres to marriage, you could start to argue your point. But, until this happens, it is far better to argue for the right to marry, than to argue the need for all these states to align all the laws within those states in any reasonable amount of time.
So, if “civil unions” were de-facto marriages, meaning they had ALL of the same rights and privileges as a marriage, and YOU had to honor them just the same, what it the point? Are you just arguing the semantics of the word? Can you give one example of how you could treat a couple differently due to them being in a “civil union” vs a marriage?