J
josie_L
Guest
I was having a discussion with several posters concerning the Immaculate conception, original sin in a thread which has now been closed down, I would like to revisit this discussion via a new thread in order to clarify my position:
While having this discussion I think I failed to express myself properly, so here goes, I do not believe that Jesus’s human nature was tainted by original sin (the Catholic view of original sin is such that it is an effect of Adam’s fault separate from that of concupiscence and/or corruptibility, death and disease, and is viewed as a real sin, a privation of grace). That being said, if he was conceived by assuming part of his humanity from Mother Mary (for she was truly the Mother of the second person of the Holy Trinity) would it not make sense being that she was immaculate (without sin), being that many Church fathers have stated that original sin/ancestral sin (hereditary stain) is passed on through generation and at conception, that she was free from this taint (a real sin)? How else could she have maintained a spotless life without there being some gift of grace from the very beginning? That Jesus’s mother would be anything but pure is inconceivable to me, she is as some fathers foretold, a type of the arc of covenant (the holy of holies). It is clear to me that a person who is immaculate could only be so because of God (I do not deny Mary’s cooperation with God’s grace), in fact, during the 6th century , a council decreed:
I state what I have said and what I believe about Mother Mary and original sin based on scripture which states we are “conceived in iniquity” (psalm 51) and the Church fathers who more than imply that Jesus did not receive the stain of sin known to us as original sin (through his human mother) via conception . This one in particular caught my eye:
While having this discussion I think I failed to express myself properly, so here goes, I do not believe that Jesus’s human nature was tainted by original sin (the Catholic view of original sin is such that it is an effect of Adam’s fault separate from that of concupiscence and/or corruptibility, death and disease, and is viewed as a real sin, a privation of grace). That being said, if he was conceived by assuming part of his humanity from Mother Mary (for she was truly the Mother of the second person of the Holy Trinity) would it not make sense being that she was immaculate (without sin), being that many Church fathers have stated that original sin/ancestral sin (hereditary stain) is passed on through generation and at conception, that she was free from this taint (a real sin)? How else could she have maintained a spotless life without there being some gift of grace from the very beginning? That Jesus’s mother would be anything but pure is inconceivable to me, she is as some fathers foretold, a type of the arc of covenant (the holy of holies). It is clear to me that a person who is immaculate could only be so because of God (I do not deny Mary’s cooperation with God’s grace), in fact, during the 6th century , a council decreed:
I can assert that she was full of Grace before the incarnation because as I mentioned she was immaculate prior/post incarnation, i.e., her whole life. To believe that she could remain sinless without divine help or interference is to believe in some form of pelagianism (a heresy which produced the above canon decreed at the Council of Orange). Having stated this, I do not deny the possibility that when Gabriel saluted her with the words 'full of Grace" the incarnation was taking effect, I have some issues, however, given that Mary did not yet give her affirmation/consent “let it be done . . .”. It is not outside the realm of possibility that Gabriel meant both, i.e., that she was full of Grace (without stain or sin) and that she was at that moment carrying Jesus.Canon 6. If anyone says that God has mercy upon us when, apart from his grace, we believe, will, desire, strive, labor, pray, watch, study, seek, ask, or knock, but does not confess that it is by the infusion and inspiration of the Holy Spirit within us that we have the faith, the will, or the strength to do all these things as we ought; or **if anyone makes the assistance of grace depend on the humility or obedience of man and does not agree that it is a gift of grace itself that we are obedient and humble, he contradicts the Apostle who says, “What have you that you did not receive?” (1 Cor. 4:7), and, “But by the grace of God I am what I am” **(1 Cor. 15:10).
I state what I have said and what I believe about Mother Mary and original sin based on scripture which states we are “conceived in iniquity” (psalm 51) and the Church fathers who more than imply that Jesus did not receive the stain of sin known to us as original sin (through his human mother) via conception . This one in particular caught my eye:
APHRAATES THE PERSIAN SAGE (c. 340 AD)
For from Baptism we receive the Spirit of Christ. At that same moment in which the priests invoke the Spirit, heaven opens, and he descends and rests upon the waters; and those who are baptized are clothed in Him. For the Spirit is ABSENT from all those who are BORN OF THE FLESH, until they come to the WATER OF RE-BIRTH; and then they receive the Holy Spirit [cf. John 3:5; Acts 2:38]. Indeed, in the first birth they are born possessed of an animal spirit, which is created within man, nor afterwards does it ever die, for it is written: “Adam became a living soul” [cf. Gen 2:7; 1 Cor 15:45]. But in the second birth, that through Baptism, they receive the Holy Spirit from a particle of the Godhead; nor is He afterwards subject to death…Of all those who have been BORN and who have PUT ON FLESH, there is ONE ONLY who is INNOCENT: namely, our Lord Jesus Christ, who in fact testifies to such in His own regard [John 16:33; Isa 53:9; Mal 3:6; 2 Cor 5:21; Col 2:14; 1 Cor 9:24 are then alluded to or cited]…Moreover, among the SONS OF ADAM THERE IS NONE besides Him who might ENTER THE RACE [are born] WITHOUT BEING WOUNDED or swallowed up…For SIN has ruled from the time ADAM TRANSGRESSED THE COMMAND. By one among the many was it swallowed up; MANY * DID IT WOUND, AND MANY DID IT KILL; but none among the many killed it until our Savior came, who took it on Himself and fixed it to His cross…Indeed, because the first human being gave ear and listened to the serpent, he received the sentence of malediction, by which he became food for the serpent; and the curse PASSED ON TO ALL HIS PROGENY. (Treatises 6:14; 7:1; 23:3)*
I believe that Mary was chosen to be a perfect vessel to carry our Lord Jesus, i.e., the SPOTLESS lamb, because it was fitting, and because original sin is a real sin, and as such it could not taint her or her offspring (as she was truly the mother of Jesus, the God-man). Having said this, I do not imply that Jesus’s incarnation was superfluous or that Jesus would have had a corrupt nature (sinful) if the IC didn’t occur (He had within himself the means to purify, because as one poster pointed out He is the source of Grace), but that unfortunately is not where the evidence lies when one looks at scripture and/or Tradition.