G
gomer_tree
Guest
I was just listening to a replay of Catholic Answers Live from yesterday, and heard the answer to a question that I found difficult to believe.
Someone was asking about the validity of a marriage if a person was impotent. The Canon lawyer said that it was not valid if the condition was antecedent to the marriage, and was a permanent condition. Jerry Usher followed up with the question, then as to whether the Catholic Church would deny marriage to a couple if one of the persons then was impotent. The answer was “yes.”
Perhaps I misunderstood the meaning of “impotent.” Impotency does not necessarily mean one cannot engage in the conjugal act, it means you cannot bear children. And while one purpose of marriage is to bear children, and while that purpose should not be purposefully avoided, I was a little dumbfounded at the response. I have to believe there was a misunderstanding there, either on the part of the lawyer or on my hearing of it.
Comments?
Someone was asking about the validity of a marriage if a person was impotent. The Canon lawyer said that it was not valid if the condition was antecedent to the marriage, and was a permanent condition. Jerry Usher followed up with the question, then as to whether the Catholic Church would deny marriage to a couple if one of the persons then was impotent. The answer was “yes.”
Perhaps I misunderstood the meaning of “impotent.” Impotency does not necessarily mean one cannot engage in the conjugal act, it means you cannot bear children. And while one purpose of marriage is to bear children, and while that purpose should not be purposefully avoided, I was a little dumbfounded at the response. I have to believe there was a misunderstanding there, either on the part of the lawyer or on my hearing of it.
Comments?