In fullfillment of the scriptures?

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In our creed, we say “rose from the dead, in fulfillment of the scriptures”. What scriptures does this refer to?

Jon
 
It is from St. Paul’s letter to the Corinthians, chapter 15. He is either referring to Hosea 6:1-3 or the feast of first fruits being that he referred to Christ as the risen firstfruit in the very same chapter, verse 20. Christ rising on Sunday fulfills the Passover celebration as this day was celebrated by Israel offering its best and first fruits of the land before the alter.
 
Trevor_Stamm said:
It is from St. Paul’s letter to the Corinthians, chapter 15. He is either referring to Hosea 6:1-3 or the feast of first fruits being that he referred to Christ as the risen firstfruit in the very same chapter, verse 20. Christ rising on Sunday fulfills the Passover celebration as this day was celebrated by Israel offering its best and first fruits of the land before the alter.
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Thanks, I will look at this in more detail.
 
**It is from St. Paul’s letter to the Corinthians, chapter 15. He is either referring to Hosea 6:1-3 or the feast of first fruits being that he referred to Christ as the risen firstfruit in the very same chapter, verse 20. Christ rising on Sunday fulfills the Passover celebration as this day was celebrated by Israel offering its best and first fruits of the land before the alter. **

Trevor Stamm, THAT is a WONDERUL answer!!!

I’d forgotten about the Offerings of the Firstfruits and the significance of the
“Wave” offerings, wherein the Priests would wave offerings of sheaves of wheat into the air “toward God” as the best of the Land and people.
And I too, at age 51, never knew WHAT scriptures that Christ had risen from the
dead “according to,” because I had never seen a direct scriptural prediction of that in
specific words. These typologies make PERFECT SENSE. THANK YOU, brother.
Jaypeeto4
 
Jaypeeto4 said:
**It is from St. Paul’s letter to the Corinthians, chapter 15. He is either referring to Hosea 6:1-3 or the feast of first fruits being that he referred to Christ as the risen firstfruit in the very same chapter, verse 20. Christ rising on Sunday fulfills the Passover celebration as this day was celebrated by Israel offering its best and first fruits of the land before the alter. **

Trevor Stamm, THAT is a WONDERUL answer!!!

I’d forgotten about the Offerings of the Firstfruits and the significance of the
“Wave” offerings, wherein the Priests would wave offerings of sheaves of wheat into the air “toward God” as the best of the Land and people.
And I too, at age 51, never knew WHAT scriptures that Christ had risen from the
dead “according to,” because I had never seen a direct scriptural prediction of that in
specific words. These typologies make PERFECT SENSE. THANK YOU, brother.
Jaypeeto4
Click to expand...
Your welcome 👍 Makes a nice rebuttal to SDA claims if you ever get in a debate with one.

Let’s not forget the previous day, Saturday or Nisan 15, where he fulfilled the first and primary feast day of unleavened bread, the bread representing incorruptibility as St. Paul in Acts 13:34-37 drew the prophecy from the Psalms that Christ’s body saw no corruption. So Christ died on the day of preparation at the same hour the Paschal lamb was being slaughtered in the Temple, rested (imagine that, the Passover fell on the Sabbath which was a very rare occasion) on Saturday and his body saw no corruption on this feast day of unleavened bread, and rose Sunday on the feast of first fruits. God is the Master Poet 😛
 
In the two verses previous to Acts 13:35-37, the apostle Paul quotes Ps.2:7 “Thou art my son, this day have I begotten thee”, and also Isaiah 55:3 as OT references to the resurrection of Jesus Christ.
 
As a footnote, I recently read in The Jewish Study Bible that in general, Jews have tended to avoid typology as a rule of exegesis.

For example, the kabbalists view the torah as the – what? – the incarnation of – what – the word of God. Heard about that anyplace?
 
Apart from the ‘firstfruits’ typology, The OT scriptures that were quoted by the apostles Peter and Paul regarding the resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ were not interpreted so much as typologies, as they were interpreted as fulfillment of Messianic prophetic scriptures. Jesus used typology quite frequently in his parables.

Isaiah 55:3 is a prophetic re-iteration of 2 Sam. 7 where God promises David that his throne would be forever, otherwise known as the Davidic Messianic covenant. This was interpreted by the apostle Paul to have been fulfilled by the glorious resurrection of the Son of God, son of David, our Lord Jesus Christ from the dead, and his subsequent ascension into heaven.

Ps.110:1 was the Psalm that Jesus confronts the religious leaders of his day. They knew it was a Messianic scripture, but then Jesus stumps them when he says, if the Messiah is the son of David, then why does David refer to the Messiah as ‘my Lord’ in Ps.110:1: “LORD said to my Lord, sit down at my right hand, until I make my enemies your footstool”.

Philo was very typology oriented in his day. I suppose it was the Jewish way to soften the more difficult passages in the Tanach. The kabbalah is another way of avoiding the difficult passages of the Tanach, but it is on the fringe of gnosticism, and one should avoid it.
 
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