H
HannahLisa
Guest
Again…God is masculine, and anything trying to turn God into a father/mother figure of any type is going WAY over the line. I’ve only heard of one translation which did that, and it was not completed because it was received so horribly. Also, I think it’s pretty obvious that “mankind” refers to men and women.
Instead, I am talking about places where “brothers” is used to refer to both men and women, and other similar instances. Tell me the last time you were in a group of men and women which was referred to as “men” only, or “brothers” only. It doesn’t happen in today’s everyday English. The “inclusive” translations that I know of translate such terms as “brothers and sisters” with a footnote saying that the original language says “brothers.”
The Declaration of Independence did only refer to men. I don’t see how anyone could make Shakespeare inclusive, because I don’t think he ever talks about humankind in general, really. Inclusive language should not mean trying to make everything gender-neutral, because that’s ridiculous.
Augustine - do you have a link to somewhere where the Church spoke against inclusive language? And how would more accurately translating the meaning of a passage lead to saying that the OT God is different from the NT God?
Instead, I am talking about places where “brothers” is used to refer to both men and women, and other similar instances. Tell me the last time you were in a group of men and women which was referred to as “men” only, or “brothers” only. It doesn’t happen in today’s everyday English. The “inclusive” translations that I know of translate such terms as “brothers and sisters” with a footnote saying that the original language says “brothers.”
The Declaration of Independence did only refer to men. I don’t see how anyone could make Shakespeare inclusive, because I don’t think he ever talks about humankind in general, really. Inclusive language should not mean trying to make everything gender-neutral, because that’s ridiculous.
Augustine - do you have a link to somewhere where the Church spoke against inclusive language? And how would more accurately translating the meaning of a passage lead to saying that the OT God is different from the NT God?
