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Pieman333272
Guest
I recently read a work by a man named Ian Stevenson. It was on Xenoglossy (speaking in tongues), and he mentioned something in it that I found odd. He mentioned that some non-Christians, particularly in India, spoke in tongues. Now, I am curious, if these are indeed cases of Xenoglossy, then does that undermine the New Testament cases of Speaking in Tongues? Like, the Apostles doing it after the Resurrection?