O
OldeThom
Guest
The Medieval Church allowed the Pope to remit sins (an outgrowth from the belief that Christ gave the power to remit sins to his Apostles, but consolidated under P. Innocent IV), where in special cases, some or all of ones punishment for sins, one could earn salvation through these works or acts of penance. Near as I can figure these “remitted” activities and/or pronouncements eventually evolved into indulgences. The idea was (is?) that if one indulged in indulgences (sorry
) then your stay in purgatory after death would be shortened (many variables and tenants not withstanding of course.) By the 16th century it was also extended to those that were thought to already be in purgatory. My apologies if that isn’t quite accurate or specific enough, but I think that is the gist.
There is good argument here that Luther’s objections to the theory and practice of indulgences were as a result of the overindulgent use of indulgences, especially as it related to these indulgences funding cathedrals, securing papal lands and underwriting war. Some of his arguments against these indulgences are in fact within his now famous Ninety-Five Theses. (Again strong argument that the theory and practice of indulgences may have led him to his view of sola fida, though by no means confined to just Luther.)
In view of CCC 1032 and 1471 - 1498, and this link: catholic.com/library/Myths_About_Indulgences.asp and other documents, like The Plenary Indulgence (removing all punishment) announcement of P. Benedict, “will be valid throughout the Pauline Year which will run from June 28, 2008 to June 29, 2009. Plenary indulgences, if all the conditions are fulfilled, remove all temporal punishments that afflict people as a result of their sins. The scriptural roots of indulgences are found in Matthew 16.” (maybe vs 19? What conditions?)
I am greatly confused by it all and would like to know how the average Catholic views and/or uses indulgences today. Since it is doctrine (CCC 1471) is it a required practice? or a result of confession and the Sacrament of Penance?
Kindly limit your remarks to indulgences and not Luther or sola fide. Thank you in advance.
Respectfully,
Thom
There is good argument here that Luther’s objections to the theory and practice of indulgences were as a result of the overindulgent use of indulgences, especially as it related to these indulgences funding cathedrals, securing papal lands and underwriting war. Some of his arguments against these indulgences are in fact within his now famous Ninety-Five Theses. (Again strong argument that the theory and practice of indulgences may have led him to his view of sola fida, though by no means confined to just Luther.)
In view of CCC 1032 and 1471 - 1498, and this link: catholic.com/library/Myths_About_Indulgences.asp and other documents, like The Plenary Indulgence (removing all punishment) announcement of P. Benedict, “will be valid throughout the Pauline Year which will run from June 28, 2008 to June 29, 2009. Plenary indulgences, if all the conditions are fulfilled, remove all temporal punishments that afflict people as a result of their sins. The scriptural roots of indulgences are found in Matthew 16.” (maybe vs 19? What conditions?)
I am greatly confused by it all and would like to know how the average Catholic views and/or uses indulgences today. Since it is doctrine (CCC 1471) is it a required practice? or a result of confession and the Sacrament of Penance?
Kindly limit your remarks to indulgences and not Luther or sola fide. Thank you in advance.
Respectfully,
Thom